UPSC Prelims 2021
Indian Polity
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 Only
- B. 2 Only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.
Indian Polity & Governance
Judiciary & Judicial Review
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2019
Economy
Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
The independent regulator, Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), set up under the TRAI Act of 1997, was the first independent regulator in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB is tasked to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Statement 3 is correct: The Appellate Tribunal established under Section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (Central Act 36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal to appeal against the decisions of the PNGRB.
Indian Economy
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2024
Art & Culture
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
- A. Only one
- B. Only two
- C. Only three
- D. All four
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Only two
Out of the four sites listed, two were included in the World Heritage List (WHS) in 2023: Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas. While Rani-ki-Vav was added to the WHS list in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya in 2002. * Shantiniketan: It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore's father, Maharshi Debendranath Tagore, in 1863 as a spiritual retreat. Shantiniketan was further expanded by Rabindranath Tagore into Visva-Bharati University in 1921, emphasizing the fusion of traditional Indian and modern Western education. * Rani ki Vav: It was built in the 11th century CE by Queen Udayamati of the Solanki dynasty in Patan, Gujarat, as a memorial to her husband, King Bhimdev I. It is an exceptional example of stepwell design. * Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas: These were built during the 12th-13th centuries CE under the patronage of the Hoysala dynasty, centered in Karnataka. Hoysala temples are characterized by star-shaped platforms (jagatis). Some of the renowned temples are Chennakeshava Temple (Belur), Hoysaleswara Temple (Halebidu), and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura). * Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya: It was built during the reign of Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE at the site where Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
Art & Culture
Current Affairs
Ancient & Classical Architecture
Medieval Indian History & Dynasties
UPSC Prelims 2019
Indian Polity
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. None of the above
Explanation
Correct answer
D. None of the above
Statement 1 is incorrect. High Courts have the power to declare central laws unconstitutional. This power is derived from their inherent jurisdiction to uphold the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Supreme Court cannot question the amending power of the Parliament, it can review the constitutional validity of an amendment. The landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala established the doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Any amendment that violates this basic structure can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
Indian Polity & Governance
Judiciary & Judicial Review
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2024
Indian Polity
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
- A. C. Rajagopalachari
- B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- C. T.T. Krishnamachari
- D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946. This was a temporary position. He served as the Chairman for two days, after which Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. Here's why the other options are incorrect: * C. Rajagopalachari: He was the last Governor-General of India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. * Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. * T.T. Krishnamachari: He was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and later served as the Finance Minister of India.
Indian Polity & Governance
History Of India
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Indian National Movement & Leadership
UPSC Prelims 2020
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2 only
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by Parliament. Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights. Hence, neither of the statements is correct.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2020
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months, which invalidated the provision in the Aadhaar Act that allowed the storage of such data for up to five years. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 which allowed private corporations to verify Aadhaar data. The Court held this provision unconstitutional, as it was seen to violate privacy rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2018 Supreme Court judgment declared that making Aadhaar mandatory for services beyond welfare schemes, including financial services like insurance or for preventing money laundering, was unconstitutional. In response to this ruling, the IRDAI issued an advisory in 2019, clarifying that Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance. It also withdrew its earlier 2017 policy that had made Aadhaar compulsory for insurance in the context of anti-money laundering measures. Statement 4 is correct: In the Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which allows the Central or State Governments to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India. The Court defined welfare schemes as those funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, thus validating the use of Aadhaar for such schemes. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2 and 4 only.
Indian Polity & Governance
Current Affairs
Judiciary & Judicial Review
Fundamental Rights
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2019
Indian Polity
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
- A. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
- B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
- C. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
- D. State legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Explanation
Correct answer
B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders and decrees necessary to ensure "complete justice" in any case before it. This power is vast and extraordinary. Article 142 allows the Supreme Court to ensure that ordinary laws comply with the Constitution and that complete justice is delivered. Even if an ordinary law creates limitations, the Supreme Court can override it using Article 142 to achieve a just outcome.
Indian Polity & Governance
Judiciary & Judicial Review
Separation Of Powers & Constitutional Ideals
UPSC Prelims 2018
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2023
Indian Polity
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
- A. 1st Amendment
- B. 42nd Amendment
- C. 44th Amendment
- D. 86thAmendment
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1st Amendment
* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Fundamental Rights
Judiciary & Judicial Review