Parents, students challenge CBSE three-language rule for Class 9

Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts, etc., to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. It is not funded by WHO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s premier urban think tank, shaping the urban narrative since its establishment in 1976, it not an apex body. It is an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act.

District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) were established in India under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015. Statement 1 is Incorrect: Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts is not a stated objective of DMFs. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary purpose of DMFs is to work for the welfare and benefit of areas and individuals affected by mining-related operations. This includes protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations. Statement 3 is Incorrect: However, DMFs do not have the authority to issue licenses for mineral exploration, as this is the responsibility of the State Governments. Their focus is more on the welfare of the affected persons and areas. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Government had launched a scheme viz Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme of Government of India, 1993. As per the scheme, Temporary status would be conferred on all casual labourers who were in employment and who have rendered a continuous service of at least one year, which means that they must have been engaged for at least 240 days (206 days in case of offices observing 5 days week). Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has decreed that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits as stipulated in the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. The Court's ruling stemmed from its interpretation of Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, wherein the definition of an "employee" encompasses a broad scope, including any individual engaged directly or indirectly in connection with an establishment's work and receiving wages. A bench of the Supreme Court affirmed this viewpoint. Statement 3 is correct: The government has the authority to specify through a notification that an establishment or industry is obligated to disburse wages exclusively via its bank account.

Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include - Women and children - Members of SC/ST - Industrial workmen - Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster - Disabled persons - Persons in custody - Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh - Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar . Statement 2 is correct. There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level) Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid. Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.

Both statements are correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India. Statement 1 is correct: NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background. Statement 2 is correct: NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

* PESA doesn't deal with the creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas. * The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of certain tribal areas as autonomous entities. The provisions of the sixth schedule are provided under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months, which invalidated the provision in the Aadhaar Act that allowed the storage of such data for up to five years. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 which allowed private corporations to verify Aadhaar data. The Court held this provision unconstitutional, as it was seen to violate privacy rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2018 Supreme Court judgment declared that making Aadhaar mandatory for services beyond welfare schemes, including financial services like insurance or for preventing money laundering, was unconstitutional. In response to this ruling, the IRDAI issued an advisory in 2019, clarifying that Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance. It also withdrew its earlier 2017 policy that had made Aadhaar compulsory for insurance in the context of anti-money laundering measures. Statement 4 is correct: In the Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which allows the Central or State Governments to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India. The Court defined welfare schemes as those funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, thus validating the use of Aadhaar for such schemes. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.