Census Act, 1948
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Understanding the legal basis of a fundamental national data collection exercise, its scope, and the powers it grants to the government is essential for governance, public administration, and demographic studies. It is a recurring topic in GS1 (Society, Geography) and GS2 (Governance).
The Census Act, 1948 is the central legislation that provides the legal framework for conducting the decennial Census in India. It empowers the Central Government to appoint census officers and mandates the collection of demographic data, which is crucial for policy formulation and planning.
Facts & tables
- Purpose
- Provides legal basis for conducting the decennial Census in India.
- Key Provisions
- Empowers Central Government to appoint Census Officers; defines duties of citizens and authorities.
- Section 4A
- Deals with requisitioning staff, specifically from 'local authorities'.
- Administering Body
- Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, Ministry of Home Affairs.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India | Implements |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Institutional roles and functions
- Legal basis for India's decennial census.
- Empowers Central Govt. to appoint census officers.
- Section 4A for staff requisition from 'local authorities'.
- Interpreted by courts regarding scope of requisition.
- Ensures systematic data collection for national planning.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2023 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2022 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2020 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2013 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2013
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2020
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2022
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2023
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
-
Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Bombay High Court stays census duty requisition for private unaided school staff
The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal framework for India's decennial census, outlining powers for data collection and staff requisition, which are subject to judicial interpretation regarding their scope and application.
See also
Past papers
2013–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
Bombay High Court stays census duty requisition for private unaided school staff
The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal framework for India's decennial census, outlining powers for data collection and staff requisition, which are subject to judicial interpretation regarding their scope and application.
Try these PYQs
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India. Statement 1 is correct: NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background. Statement 2 is correct: NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as advocate and there's no prohibition on their recognition as advocates. Statement 2 is correct. The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include - Women and children - Members of SC/ST - Industrial workmen - Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster - Disabled persons - Persons in custody - Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh - Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar . Statement 2 is correct. There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level) Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid. Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._
Show 3 more PYQs
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established under the *North Eastern Council Act, 1971* to ensure the balanced and coordinated development of the North Eastern Region. After the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the structure and composition of the Council were modified. As per Section 3(1) of the *NEC Act, 1971 (as amended)*, the Council shall consist of the following members: 1. The Chief Ministers of the Constituent States
2. The Governors of the Constituent States
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India These are the only members of the Council as defined by the Act. Further, Section 3(2) specifies that:
“The Union Home Minister shall be the ex officio Chairman of the Council, and the Minister of the Central Government in charge of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) shall be the ex officio Vice-Chairman of the Council.” Thus, while the Union Home Minister serves as the ex officio Chairman, he does not form part of the Council as a member under Section 3(1). Similarly, the Minister of DoNER is the ex officio Vice-Chairman, but not a member of the Council.
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
* The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): This body is a constitutional body. It was given constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 338B into the Indian Constitution. * The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. * The National Law Commission: This body is not a constitutional body. It is an executive body established by an executive order of the Government of India. * The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 (replaced by the Consumer Protection Act 2019).
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.