Economic Sanctions and Asset Freezes

Statement 1 is correct: The Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) prohibits quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors. This means that countries cannot impose conditions like mandatory local sourcing or trade-balancing requirements that distort free trade. Statement 2 is incorrect: TRIMS only applies to trade in goods, not services. The regulation of trade in services falls under the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS), not TRIMS. Statement 3 is correct: TRIMS is not directly concerned with the regulation of foreign investments. Instead, it focuses on investment measures that affect trade in goods, ensuring that they do not create barriers to international trade. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) typically involves a long-term interest and control in a company. However, the definition includes specific instruments and thresholds. Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) and Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) are instruments used by Indian companies to raise capital abroad. Since these are essentially precursors to equity (convertible to shares) or represent underlying shares, they are treated as part of the FDI policy framework and statistics under the "Foreign Investment" category. Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)—now largely subsumed under Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)—is generally considered short-term. However, with certain conditions, it becomes FDI. According to international standards and the Arvind Mayaram Committee recommendations adopted by India, if an FPI holds a stake of 10% or more in a company, it is reclassified and treated as FDI. Statement 4 is incorrect: Non-Resident External (NRE) deposits are simply bank accounts held by NRIs in India. These are classified as External Debt (if repatriable) or Banking Capital, not foreign investment in a productive enterprise.

Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings: This reduces exposure to capital flight. During a crisis, foreign investors may pull their money out of emerging markets like India, leading to rupee depreciation and financial instability. By limiting short-term foreign borrowings, India can lessen the impact of such capital flight. Opening up to more foreign banks: While this might seem beneficial, it can also increase reliance on foreign capital. During a crisis, foreign banks might be more likely to restrict credit, negatively impacting the Indian economy. Maintaining full capital account convertibility: This allows for the free movement of capital in and out of the country. While it can be beneficial in normal times, it can also exacerbate capital flight during a crisis. Therefore, the most prudent strategy is to reduce dependence on short-term foreign borrowings to minimize the vulnerability caused by potential capital flight. Hence, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is negotiated between India and the European Union (EU).

Tight monetary policy is an action taken by a central bank, such as the Federal Reserve, to curb overheated economic growth. Central banks employ tight monetary policy when an economy is experiencing rapid acceleration or when inflation, which pertains to overall prices, is escalating too swiftly. Statement 1 is correct. A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve means higher interest rates in the US. This attracts global investors to shift their capital towards US assets for better returns. As a result, there can be capital flight from emerging markets like India to the US. Statement 2 is correct. When capital flows out, the domestic currency tends to depreciate, and global interest rates rise. Firms that have borrowed in foreign currencies through External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) will now face higher repayment costs in rupee terms. Thus, their cost of servicing these loans increases, raising their overall financial burden. Statement 3 is incorrect. Devaluation of the domestic currency actually increases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Since these loans are denominated in foreign currency (like USD), a weaker rupee means firms have to pay more in rupees to repay the same amount of foreign debt. Therefore, devaluation heightens, not reduces, currency risk. NOTE: The given question was dropped by UPSC from the Official Answer Key.