Federalism and State Rights
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Federalism is a cornerstone of Indian governance, essential for understanding power distribution, regional aspirations, and the functioning of the polity. UPSC frequently tests knowledge on Centre-State relations, challenges to federalism, and the constitutional provisions safeguarding state autonomy, making it a recurring theme in both Prelims and Mains.
Federalism is a system of government where power is constitutionally divided between a central authority and various constituent units. In India, the Constitution establishes a dual polity with distinct powers for the Union and State governments, with State rights referring to the autonomy and powers granted to these state units within this framework.
Facts & tables
- Nature of Indian Federalism
- India is described as 'quasi-federal' due to its blend of federal and unitary features, often with a strong central bias.
- Distribution of Powers
- The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution delineates legislative powers between the Union and States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
- Dimensions of Relations
- Centre-State relations encompass legislative, administrative, and financial aspects, defining the dynamic between the two levels of government.
- Basic Feature of Constitution
- Federalism is considered a 'basic feature' of the Indian Constitution, meaning it cannot be altered by Parliament through its amending power.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Constitutional Law |
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Supreme Court of India | Interprets constitutional provisions related to federalism, resolves centre-state disputes |
| Parliament of India | Legislates on union and concurrent lists, impacting state powers |
| State Legislatures | Legislate on state and concurrent lists, represent state interests |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Constitutional division of power between Centre and States.
- India's 'quasi-federal' nature, strong Centre.
- Seventh Schedule: Union, State, Concurrent Lists.
- Challenges: centralization, financial dependence, political interference.
- Federalism as a 'basic feature' of the Constitution.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2016 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Constitutional Law
Conceptual area
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2016
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2018
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Protecting federalism must be the INDIA bloc’s ‘glue’
The article argues that federalism and the safeguarding of State rights should be the core unifying principle for political alliances like the INDIA bloc, rather than mere opposition to a dominant party. It highlights concerns about the centralization of power and the need for all parties, including national ones, to champion state autonomy as a fundamental constitutional ideal.
See also
Past papers
2016–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
Protecting federalism must be the INDIA bloc’s ‘glue’
The article argues that federalism and the safeguarding of State rights should be the core unifying principle for political alliances like the INDIA bloc, rather than mere opposition to a dominant party. It highlights concerns about the centralization of power and the need for all parties, including national ones, to champion state autonomy as a fundamental constitutional ideal.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
Regulation of minor minerals is mainly a State subject under the MMDR Act, 1957. States have the authority to make rules for extraction concessions. ✅ Statement II: Correct
The Central Government notifies which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.
Show 3 more PYQs
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation. Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down. Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356. Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.