National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET)
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
NEET exemplifies the challenges of national-level standardization in a concurrent subject like education, raising questions about federalism, equity, access to higher education, and the effectiveness of statutory bodies in ensuring fair processes.
The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) is a national-level entrance examination in India for admission to undergraduate medical (MBBS, BDS) and other allied courses. It was introduced to standardize medical admissions across the country, replacing various state-level and private entrance exams, aiming to ensure merit-based selection and curb malpractices.
Facts & tables
- Mandate
- Mandated by the National Medical Commission Act, 2019 (formerly MCI Act).
- Administering Body
- Conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
- Objective
- To provide a single, uniform entrance examination for medical admissions nationwide.
- Controversies
- Faces criticism regarding paper leaks, alleged irregularities, promotion of coaching culture, and its impact on students from diverse socio-economic backgrounds and state boards.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Constitutional & Statutory Bodies |
| Conceptual area | Federal Structure & Centre-State Relations |
| Conceptual area | Welfare Schemes & Social Policies |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| National Testing Agency (NTA) | Administers |
| National Medical Commission (NMC) | Regulatory body |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Factual recall
Prelims angle: Institutional roles and functions
- National exam for medical admissions (MBBS, BDS).
- Administered by NTA, mandated by NMC Act.
- Aims for standardization and merit.
- Criticized for paper leaks, coaching culture, and equity issues.
- Highlights Centre-State tensions in education (Concurrent List).
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2023 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2016 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2013 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
Timeline
-
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Conceptual area
-
Federal Structure & Centre-State Relations
Conceptual area
-
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2013
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2016
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2018
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2023
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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M.K. Stalin writes: 'NEET’s promise has failed; it’s time to trust States'
NEET is India's national medical entrance exam, introduced for standardization but facing significant challenges related to fairness, paper leaks, and its implications for state autonomy in education, highlighting Centre-State tensions.
See also
Past papers
2013–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
M.K. Stalin writes: 'NEET’s promise has failed; it’s time to trust States'
NEET is India's national medical entrance exam, introduced for standardization but facing significant challenges related to fairness, paper leaks, and its implications for state autonomy in education, highlighting Centre-State tensions.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. * Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) mentions that individuals detained under preventive detention laws are not initially entitled to consult or be defended by a legal practitioner until the grounds of detention are disclosed to them. Although the constitution allows for exceptions in preventive detention cases, it does not prohibit state governments from providing legal counsel to the detained person. The state has the discretion to offer legal assistance if it wishes. * Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32(1) of POTA 2002 allows confessions made to a police officer of at least Superintendent rank, overriding certain provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act.
In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935. Residuary Power was given to the
In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, the residuary power was given to the Governor General. This means that the Governor General had the authority to deal with any legislative matters that weren't explicitly assigned to either the federal legislature or the provincial legislatures. This gave the Governor General significant control over the legislative process.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Prisons Act 1894 is one of the oldest pieces of legislation in India dealing with laws enacted in relation to prisons in India. * Statement 1 is correct: Prison is a State subject under List-II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. States have the primary role, responsibility, and power to change the current prison laws, rules, and regulations. Hence it is true that prisons are managed by the state governments with their own rules and regulations. * Statement 2 is correct: The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments and is governed by the Prisons Act, of 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. * Hence it is true that the Prisons Act of 1894 kept the subject of prisons in the Provincial government (State governments) and this explains why State governments have the power to frame their own rules and regulations regarding prison management.
Show 3 more PYQs
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.
Consider the following statements
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.
Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart: