National Investigation Agency (NIA)
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
The NIA is a crucial institution for India's internal security architecture, especially in combating terrorism. UPSC examines its role, powers, jurisdiction, and its impact on federalism and human rights, making it relevant for GS2 (governance, federalism) and GS3 (internal security).
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is India's central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency, established under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, in the aftermath of the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is empowered to investigate and prosecute offenses affecting the sovereignty, security, and integrity of India, particularly those related to terrorism.
Facts & tables
- Establishment
- Established in 2008 by an Act of Parliament.
- Administrative Control
- Functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Mandate
- Investigates and prosecutes offenses listed in the NIA Act's schedule (e.g., terrorism, human trafficking, counterfeit currency).
- Jurisdiction
- Has jurisdiction across India and can take over cases from state police; Special NIA courts are designated for trials.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) | Administrative control |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Institutional roles and functions
- Central counter-terrorism agency.
- Established by NIA Act, 2008 (statutory).
- Functions under MHA.
- Investigates scheduled offenses (terrorism, etc.).
- Has special NIA courts.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2024
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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NIA court allows special dietary arrangements for U.S. national accused in a terror case
NIA is India's central anti-terror agency, established in 2008 under MHA, with nationwide jurisdiction to investigate scheduled offenses and prosecute them in special NIA courts.
See also
No related topics linked yet.
Past papers
2018–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
NIA court allows special dietary arrangements for U.S. national accused in a terror case
NIA is India's central anti-terror agency, established in 2008 under MHA, with nationwide jurisdiction to investigate scheduled offenses and prosecute them in special NIA courts.
Try these PYQs
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India. Statement 2 is correct: The NGT’s primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts. The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment. Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.
Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement 1 is correct: In India, the Constitution Day is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India and also it was celebrated to promote constitutional values among the citizens of India. * Statement 2 is incorrect: On 29 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Show 3 more PYQs
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.