Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs10
- Articles2
Background
Essential for understanding India's legal framework against financial crimes, its international commitments (FATF), and the powers of enforcement agencies like ED. Frequently amended and debated.
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, is a comprehensive legislation enacted by the Indian Parliament to prevent money laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money laundering. It forms the legal backbone for combating financial crimes and illicit financial flows in India.
Facts & tables
- Objective
- To combat money laundering, confiscate property derived from money laundering, and deal with related matters.
- Enforcement Agency
- Enforcement Directorate (ED) under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
- Predicate Offence
- Money laundering is not a standalone crime; it requires a 'predicate offence' (scheduled offence) from which the proceeds of crime are generated.
- Key Powers of ED
- Provisional attachment of property, search and seizure, arrest, and investigation.
- Enactment
- Enacted in 2002, came into force in 2005.
- Purpose
- Defines 'money laundering' and prescribes punishment for it.
- Enforcement
- Empowers ED to investigate, attach, and confiscate properties linked to money laundering.
- Obligations
- Mandates reporting obligations for financial institutions to FIU-IND.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Enforcement Directorate (ED) | Implements |
| Enforcement Directorate | Enforces pmla |
| Financial Intelligence Unit - India (FIU-IND) | Receives reports under pmla |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Statement-based questions
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Enacted in 2002 to combat money laundering.
- Enforced by the Enforcement Directorate (ED).
- Requires a 'predicate offence' for money laundering charges.
- ED has powers of arrest, search, seizure, and property attachment.
- Judicial scrutiny often focuses on due process and evidence standards.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2022 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2022
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2026
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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‘Gross abuse of process of law’: HC quashes Delhi Police, ED cases against NewsClick
PMLA, 2002, empowers the ED to investigate and prosecute money laundering cases, requiring a predicate offence for its application. Recent judicial pronouncements have clarified its scope and the powers of the ED.
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ED attaches 4 hotels, 2 flats in DA probe against ex-IPS officer from Assam
PMLA, 2002, is India's primary law to combat money laundering, enabling the ED to investigate, attach, and confiscate laundered assets and imposing reporting duties on financial entities.
See also
Past papers
2018–2026 · 10 questions
In the news
ED attaches 4 hotels, 2 flats in DA probe against ex-IPS officer from Assam
PMLA, 2002, is India's primary law to combat money laundering, enabling the ED to investigate, attach, and confiscate laundered assets and imposing reporting duties on financial entities.
‘Gross abuse of process of law’: HC quashes Delhi Police, ED cases against NewsClick
PMLA, 2002, empowers the ED to investigate and prosecute money laundering cases, requiring a predicate offence for its application. Recent judicial pronouncements have clarified its scope and the powers of the ED.
Try these PYQs
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India. Statement 2 is correct: The NGT’s primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts. The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment. Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
| Organization | Some of its Functions | It Works Under |
|--------------------|------------------------|--------------------------------|
| Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
| Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
| Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
The question relates to the correct mapping of key investigative and analytical bodies under the Government of India and their parent ministries or departments. ❌ Row I: Incorrect The Directorate of Enforcement does implement the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. ✅ Row II: Correct The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. ✅ Row III: Correct The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management aids in big data analytics for tax enforcement and operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
Row 1 is Incorrect: The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) acts as the nodal agency for gathering and coordinating economic intelligence among various law enforcement agencies to combat economic offenses. However, it functions under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row 2 is Incorrect: The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a multi-disciplinary statutory organization tasked with detecting, investigating, and prosecuting serious and complex corporate frauds (white-collar crimes). It functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance. Row 3 is Correct: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is India's premier investigative agency handling corruption, economic offenses, and special crimes. Its overarching mandate is to preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy. It functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (specifically, the Department of Personnel and Training). Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.
Show 5 more PYQs
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established under the *North Eastern Council Act, 1971* to ensure the balanced and coordinated development of the North Eastern Region. After the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the structure and composition of the Council were modified. As per Section 3(1) of the *NEC Act, 1971 (as amended)*, the Council shall consist of the following members: 1. The Chief Ministers of the Constituent States
2. The Governors of the Constituent States
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India These are the only members of the Council as defined by the Act. Further, Section 3(2) specifies that:
“The Union Home Minister shall be the ex officio Chairman of the Council, and the Minister of the Central Government in charge of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) shall be the ex officio Vice-Chairman of the Council.” Thus, while the Union Home Minister serves as the ex officio Chairman, he does not form part of the Council as a member under Section 3(1). Similarly, the Minister of DoNER is the ex officio Vice-Chairman, but not a member of the Council.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as advocate and there's no prohibition on their recognition as advocates. Statement 2 is correct. The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.