Public Health Preparedness and Disease Surveillance
Social Justice & Development
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Essential for effective governance, disaster management, ensuring citizen welfare, and building resilient health infrastructure.
Public health preparedness refers to the capacity of health systems to anticipate, prevent, detect, and respond to public health emergencies, including infectious disease outbreaks. Disease surveillance is a core component, involving systematic data collection, analysis, and interpretation for public health action.
Facts & tables
- Components
- Early warning systems, rapid response teams, contact tracing, laboratory diagnostics, health infrastructure.
- Importance
- Minimizing morbidity and mortality, preventing widespread transmission, protecting healthcare workers.
- Key Strategies
- Intensive contact tracing, screening, isolation, deployment of clinical protocols, community engagement.
- State-level Example
- Kerala's robust health system response to Nipah outbreaks.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Social Justice & Development |
| Conceptual area | Welfare Schemes & Social Policies |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Factual recall
- Definition: System capacity for health emergencies.
- Key elements: Surveillance, rapid response, contact tracing.
- Goal: Minimize spread, protect population.
- Example: Kerala's Nipah response.
- Importance: Governance, disaster management.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2026 | Conceptual understanding, Terminology-based question |
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2023 | Multi-statement analysis, Policy measures |
| 2022 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
Timeline
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Social Justice & Development
Conceptual area
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Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2022
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Multi-statement analysis
-
Prelims 2023
Multi-statement analysis, Policy measures
-
Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2026
Conceptual understanding, Terminology-based question
-
Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Primed to treat: On Kerala and Nipah
Public health preparedness involves a health system's ability to respond to emergencies. Kerala's successful Nipah control exemplifies robust preparedness through early detection, contact tracing, and efficient protocol deployment. Disease surveillance is key for monitoring and responding to outbreaks.
See also
Past papers
2022–2026 · 7 questions
In the news
Primed to treat: On Kerala and Nipah
Public health preparedness involves a health system's ability to respond to emergencies. Kerala's successful Nipah control exemplifies robust preparedness through early detection, contact tracing, and efficient protocol deployment. Disease surveillance is key for monitoring and responding to outbreaks.
Try these PYQs
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and accessibility. It also mandates reservations for PwDs, such as increasing the quota to 4% in government employment and 5% in higher education. Statement 2 is Correct: The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). It focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure (barrier-free public buildings), transport systems (accessible railways, airports, and roads), and information and communication technology (accessible government websites and digital ecosystems). Statement 3 is Incorrect: The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking registered as a not-for-profit company to provide concessional financial assistance to promote entrepreneurship, self-employment, and higher education among PwDs. However, it was set up under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Therefore, the correct option is B.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement I is correct: India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis. * Statement II is correct: India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts.
Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:
1. It is safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM). It is a central intervention implemented by states, not an intervention of the State Health Departments. Statement 2 is correct: The primary objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by encouraging safe, institutional births. Statement 3 is correct: The scheme provides a cash incentive to mothers to promote institutional delivery, particularly among those from BPL, SC, and ST households. Statement 4 is incorrect: While care for sick infants is a priority under the National Health Mission, the provision of free facilities for sick infants up to one year of age is specifically a feature of the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) launched in 2011. JSY, launched in 2005, is primarily a conditional cash transfer scheme for delivery.
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
Accountability is the obligation of public officials to take responsibility for their actions, ensure transparency, and answer to oversight bodies (such as vigilance authorities). It involves actively protecting the public interest, reporting misconduct, and ensuring that private contractors utilizing public funds adhere to strict quality and ethical standards. By reporting the compromised vaccine distribution to the vigilance authority and halting the contract despite immense pressure, Mr. X demonstrated a high degree of accountability towards citizen welfare. Esprit de corps is a classical management principle that emphasizes building team spirit, unity, harmony, and mutual trust among personnel within an organization. It is not the primary principle demonstrated in this scenario. Equity refers to the principle of fairness, justice, and impartiality in administration, ensuring that public services and resources are distributed without bias. While his actions were just, the specific act of reporting to vigilance and taking responsibility highlights accountability rather than equity. Delegation is the administrative process of transferring authority and responsibility for specific tasks from a superior to a subordinate or a third-party service provider. Mr. X's actions were about holding the delegated party accountable, not the act of delegation itself. Therefore, the correct option is C.
Show 3 more PYQs
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to provide digital health IDs for all Indian citizens to help hospitals, insurance firms, and citizens access health records electronically when required. Statement 1 is incorrect. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has not made it mandatory for adoption by private and public hospitals. Its adoption so far would be voluntary. Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). Statement 2 is incorrect. The aim of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is to facilitate the ease of access to medical records and it is not been mandated to have every citizen as its part though the facility is available to every citizen on a consent basis. Statement 3 is correct. ABDM will have a national footprint and will enable seamless portability across the country through a Health ID Personal Health Identifier.
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.
As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
Statement 1 is Correct: In standard mediation and conflict resolution practices, acknowledging the emotional, historical, and cultural grievances of marginalized groups is a necessary first step. Validating the tribal community's cultural concerns helps build trust and creates a conducive environment before negotiating technical solutions. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While addressing urban health concerns represents the utilitarian principle of the "greatest good for the greatest number," democratic governance and rights-based ethics dictate that this cannot come at the cost of steamrolling the fundamental rights and cultural dignity of a vulnerable minority. In India, tribal land and cultural identities are protected under the Constitution (Fifth and Sixth Schedules) and laws like the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, and PESA, 1996, which mandate respecting tribal rights and often require community consent. Statement 3 is Correct: Resolving complex public disputes requires inclusive, participatory governance. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform that brings together opposing parties (tribal leaders, urban representatives) and neutral experts fosters consensus-building, builds mutual understanding, and effectively de-escalates tensions. Statement 4 is Correct: Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) is a standard governance tool used to objectively evaluate the ecological and human costs of a project. Transparently sharing these findings ensures evidence-based decision-making, counters misinformation, and helps all stakeholders understand the objective realities of the proposed site. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1: Incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides a minimum package of antenatal care (ANC) services only during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. It does not cover post-delivery health care services for six months. The focus is on ensuring safe pregnancies through early detection and management of high-risk cases. * Statement 2: Correct. Under PMSMA, private sector health care providers (such as gynecologists, radiologists, and physicians) can volunteer to provide free services at nearby government health facilities on the 9th of every month. This public-private partnership enhances access to specialized care for pregnant women.