Regulatory Framework for Television and Radio Services
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
UPSC focuses on governance reforms, ease of doing business initiatives, impact of new legislation, and policies affecting public services and media. This concept directly addresses these areas by detailing a significant regulatory overhaul.
India's broadcasting and telecommunication sector is governed by a comprehensive legal and regulatory framework, which includes acts of Parliament, rules, and guidelines issued by relevant ministries and statutory bodies. This framework aims to ensure orderly growth, fair competition, public access, and national security in the rapidly evolving digital landscape.
Facts & tables
- Basis
- Draft rules issued under the newly enacted Telecommunications Act, 2023.
- Objective
- Consolidate existing guidelines, simplify the regulatory regime, and promote ease of doing business.
- Scope
- Covers Television, Radio, and Associated Services.
- Impact
- Aims to improve availability of services, including community radio, in remote and rural areas.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Constitutional & Statutory Bodies |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Ministry of Information and Broadcasting | Formulates policy |
| Lok Sabha | Legislative oversight |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Institutional roles and functions
- New draft rules (2026) under Telecommunications Act, 2023.
- Consolidates guidelines for TV, Radio, associated services.
- Aims for unified, simplified regulatory framework.
- Promotes ease of doing business in broadcasting sector.
- Enhances service availability, including community radio.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2024 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2022 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2022
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2024
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2026
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Draft Telecommunications (Television, Radio and Associated Services) Rules, 2026 to Simplify Regulatory Framework for Television and Radio Services
The new draft rules under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, aim to simplify and unify the regulatory framework for broadcasting services, promoting ease of doing business and enhancing service availability across the country.
See also
Past papers
2018–2026 · 8 questions
In the news
Draft Telecommunications (Television, Radio and Associated Services) Rules, 2026 to Simplify Regulatory Framework for Television and Radio Services
The new draft rules under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, aim to simplify and unify the regulatory framework for broadcasting services, promoting ease of doing business and enhancing service availability across the country.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India. Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The information received by Ms. X is confidential and the allegations are legally unproven. Immediately disclosing unverified information to the public violates the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules regarding confidentiality. It could lead to defamation, unwarranted public panic, and legal repercussions for the department. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Recommending the removal of the contractor based solely on unproven allegations and hearsay violates the principles of due process and natural justice. Decisions in public administration must be objective and evidence-based. Arbitrarily removing a contractor without a formal investigation undermines fair competition norms and the legal rights of the contractor. Statement 3 is Correct: Proposing a limited disclosure to an oversight committee or internal vigilance mechanism is the most ethical and administratively sound course of action. It balances the need for transparency and integrity with the requirement of confidentiality. This allows the proper institutional channels to verify the facts and conduct an investigation before any executive action is taken, without causing unnecessary project delays or public controversy. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._
Show 3 more PYQs
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established under the *North Eastern Council Act, 1971* to ensure the balanced and coordinated development of the North Eastern Region. After the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the structure and composition of the Council were modified. As per Section 3(1) of the *NEC Act, 1971 (as amended)*, the Council shall consist of the following members: 1. The Chief Ministers of the Constituent States
2. The Governors of the Constituent States
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India These are the only members of the Council as defined by the Act. Further, Section 3(2) specifies that:
“The Union Home Minister shall be the ex officio Chairman of the Council, and the Minister of the Central Government in charge of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) shall be the ex officio Vice-Chairman of the Council.” Thus, while the Union Home Minister serves as the ex officio Chairman, he does not form part of the Council as a member under Section 3(1). Similarly, the Minister of DoNER is the ex officio Vice-Chairman, but not a member of the Council.
Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates downstream activities like storage, distribution, and marketing—not upstream activities like production. ❌ I. Production of crude oil – Not regulated
* This is an upstream activity regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH), not PNGRB. ✅ II. Refining, storage and distribution – Partially regulated
* Storage and distribution are regulated by PNGRB.
* Refining is generally not directly regulated, though PNGRB may set standards affecting it. ✅ III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Regulated
* PNGRB authorizes entities to market notified petroleum products and natural gas. ❌ IV. Production of natural gas – Not regulated
* Like crude oil, it’s an upstream activity, not under PNGRB.