Scientific Temper
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
UPSC emphasizes constitutional values, the promotion of rational thought, and the importance of scientific temper in public policy, education, and societal development, especially in countering misinformation.
Scientific temper, enshrined as a Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution under Article 51A(h), mandates every citizen to develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Facts & tables
- Constitutional Basis
- Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(h).
- Components
- Spirit of inquiry, reform, and humanism.
- Core Principle
- Promotes critical thinking, evidence-based reasoning, and a rational outlook.
- Societal Role
- Essential for distinguishing verifiable knowledge from unscientific claims.
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Statement-based questions
Prelims angle: Factual recall
- Fundamental Duty (Art. 51A(h)).
- Develops spirit of inquiry, reform, humanism.
- Promotes critical, evidence-based reasoning.
- Crucial for rational public discourse.
- Contrasts with unverified claims.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2020 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2018 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2017 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
Timeline
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Prelims 2017
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2018
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2020
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Multi-statement analysis
-
Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2025
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2026
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
A Trojan horse has breached the IITs
A Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution (Art. 51A(h)) promoting rational thought, inquiry, and reform, crucial for fostering a scientific outlook in society.
See also
No related topics linked yet.
Past papers
2017–2026 · 8 questions
In the news
A Trojan horse has breached the IITs
A Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution (Art. 51A(h)) promoting rational thought, inquiry, and reform, crucial for fostering a scientific outlook in society.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. Therefore, neither statement is correct.
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Fundamental Duties listed in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution are not directly enforceable by law, they are not entirely non-enforceable either. The legislature can enact laws to give effect to these duties, and courts may consider them while interpreting laws and constitutional provisions. Additionally, in some cases, laws have been enacted to enforce specific Fundamental Duties, such as the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, which penalizes disrespect to the national flag and anthem. Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties and legal duties are not strictly correlative. While legal duties are explicitly defined and enforceable by law, Fundamental Duties serve as moral and civic responsibilities to promote patriotism and national unity. However, courts have occasionally linked Fundamental Duties with legal obligations, reinforcing their significance in judicial interpretations.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. India follows a single citizenship system, which means that every Indian is a citizen of India, irrespective of the place of his/her residence within the country. The concept of domicile does not exist in the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, the Head of State is the President, and as per Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, any person who is a citizen of India and is 35 years of age or above is eligible to become the President. It does not matter whether the person is a citizen by birth or by naturalization. Statement 3 is also incorrect. As per the Citizenship Act 1955, the Central Government has the power to deprive a person of his/her citizenship under certain circumstances.
Show 3 more PYQs
Consider the following assertion :
**The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.**
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ?
1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Correct: The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) not only retained the separate electorates for Muslims (first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909) but explicitly extended them to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This institutionalized community-based representation, directly fostering political alliances based on community. Statement 2 is Correct: The British utilized separate electorates as a strategic tool of "Divide and Rule." By institutionalizing communal and class divisions, the colonial government aimed to fragment and weaken the increasingly unified Indian nationalist movement, which was growing stronger at the time. Statement 3 is Correct: The 1919 constitutional framework tied political representation, legislative power, and administrative favors directly to communal and class identities. Consequently, various minority groups and deprived classes began organizing politically around these specific identities to secure concessions and representation, which laid the genesis for community-based political alliances in India. Therefore, all three statements support the assertion, making the correct option D.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by Parliament. Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights. Hence, neither of the statements is correct.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.