Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Examines the role of government in facilitating religious projects, accountability of public/religious trusts, implications of Supreme Court judgments, and governance challenges in managing large-scale public donations.
The Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust is a statutory body formed by the Government of India in February 2020, following the Supreme Court's verdict in the Ayodhya dispute. Its primary mandate is to oversee the construction and management of the Ram Temple in Ayodhya.
Facts & tables
- Formation
- Formed under the provisions of the Ayodhya verdict (2019) by the Supreme Court and facilitated by the Government of India.
- Legal Status
- Registered as a trust under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
- Mandate
- Responsible for the construction, development, and management of the Ram Temple complex.
- Funding
- Primarily receives donations from the public for the temple project.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Government of India | Formed |
| Supreme Court of India | Mandated formation |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Statement-based questions
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Formed by GoI post-SC Ayodhya verdict (2019).
- Mandate: Ram Temple construction & management.
- Receives public donations.
- Currently under scrutiny for alleged financial irregularities.
- Highlights issues of trust governance and accountability.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2026 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2026 | Conceptual understanding, Terminology-based question |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2022 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2022
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2024
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2026
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2026
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2026
Conceptual understanding, Terminology-based question
-
Ram Temple donation row: Champat Rai, Anil Mishra resign
A government-formed trust for Ram Temple construction, facing scrutiny over financial transparency and accountability.
See also
Past papers
2018–2026 · 7 questions
In the news
Ram Temple donation row: Champat Rai, Anil Mishra resign
A government-formed trust for Ram Temple construction, facing scrutiny over financial transparency and accountability.
Try these PYQs
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The information received by Ms. X is confidential and the allegations are legally unproven. Immediately disclosing unverified information to the public violates the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules regarding confidentiality. It could lead to defamation, unwarranted public panic, and legal repercussions for the department. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Recommending the removal of the contractor based solely on unproven allegations and hearsay violates the principles of due process and natural justice. Decisions in public administration must be objective and evidence-based. Arbitrarily removing a contractor without a formal investigation undermines fair competition norms and the legal rights of the contractor. Statement 3 is Correct: Proposing a limited disclosure to an oversight committee or internal vigilance mechanism is the most ethical and administratively sound course of action. It balances the need for transparency and integrity with the requirement of confidentiality. This allows the proper institutional channels to verify the facts and conduct an investigation before any executive action is taken, without causing unnecessary project delays or public controversy. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes' advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes. Option B is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body. Option C is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not convert the area into a Union Territory. Option D is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not get declared as a Special Category State.
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
Row 1 is Incorrect: The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) acts as the nodal agency for gathering and coordinating economic intelligence among various law enforcement agencies to combat economic offenses. However, it functions under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row 2 is Incorrect: The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a multi-disciplinary statutory organization tasked with detecting, investigating, and prosecuting serious and complex corporate frauds (white-collar crimes). It functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance. Row 3 is Correct: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is India's premier investigative agency handling corruption, economic offenses, and special crimes. Its overarching mandate is to preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy. It functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (specifically, the Department of Personnel and Training). Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
Accountability is the obligation of public officials to take responsibility for their actions, ensure transparency, and answer to oversight bodies (such as vigilance authorities). It involves actively protecting the public interest, reporting misconduct, and ensuring that private contractors utilizing public funds adhere to strict quality and ethical standards. By reporting the compromised vaccine distribution to the vigilance authority and halting the contract despite immense pressure, Mr. X demonstrated a high degree of accountability towards citizen welfare. Esprit de corps is a classical management principle that emphasizes building team spirit, unity, harmony, and mutual trust among personnel within an organization. It is not the primary principle demonstrated in this scenario. Equity refers to the principle of fairness, justice, and impartiality in administration, ensuring that public services and resources are distributed without bias. While his actions were just, the specific act of reporting to vigilance and taking responsibility highlights accountability rather than equity. Delegation is the administrative process of transferring authority and responsibility for specific tasks from a superior to a subordinate or a third-party service provider. Mr. X's actions were about holding the delegated party accountable, not the act of delegation itself. Therefore, the correct option is C.
Show 3 more PYQs
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.