Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
UPSC is a fundamental institution of Indian governance, crucial for maintaining meritocracy in public administration. Its role, powers, and constitutional status are recurring themes in GS2, covering aspects of its functions, challenges, and importance in the federal structure.
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a central recruiting agency in India, responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to various All India Services and central services, and for advising the President on various service matters. It is an independent constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India.
Facts & tables
- Constitutional Basis
- Established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
- Composition
- Comprises a Chairman and other members appointed by the President.
- Key Functions
- Conducts examinations for All India Services, Central Services, and advises on recruitment rules, promotions, and disciplinary matters.
- Independence
- Its independence is ensured through various constitutional provisions to maintain impartiality.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Union Public Service Commission | Recruits |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Factual recall
- Constitutional body (Art. 315-323).
- Conducts exams for All India & Central Services.
- Advises President on service matters.
- Ensures merit-based recruitment.
- Members appointed by President.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2022 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2017 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
Timeline
-
Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2017
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2022
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
-
Direct Recruitment to various posts in Government of India
UPSC is India's premier constitutional body for recruitment to civil services, ensuring merit-based selection and advising the government on service matters, thereby upholding the principles of good governance.
See also
No related topics linked yet.
Past papers
2017–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
Direct Recruitment to various posts in Government of India
UPSC is India's premier constitutional body for recruitment to civil services, ensuring merit-based selection and advising the government on service matters, thereby upholding the principles of good governance.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is not a five-member body. It is a three-member body, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs). However, it originally started as a single-member body in 1950 and became a multi-member commission in 1993. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) does not decide the election schedule. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is solely responsible for determining the schedule of general elections and bye-elections. It exercises this power under Article 324 of the Constitution, ensuring free and fair elections in the country. Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission of India has the authority to resolve disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties. It decides which faction of a party is the legitimate one and, if necessary, allocates party symbols accordingly, based on precedents and internal party strength. Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 3 only.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes all Indian public servants, even those posted abroad. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
Chairperson need not be only the CJI; former judges or eminent persons with 25+ years’ expertise can also be appointed. ✅ Statement III: Correct
Minimum age to be Chairperson or Member is 45 years. ❌ Statement IV: Incorrect
Lokpal can inquire against a sitting PM, but with safeguards and restrictions in sensitive areas. Therefore, only Statement III is correct.
Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
Show 3 more PYQs
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
✅ Statement I: Correct
The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94). ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality. ✅ Statement III: Correct
The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94). Therefore, statements I and III are correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, 1953 and it was established to regulate the Indian tea industry and protect the interests of tea producers in India. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tea Board of India's Head Office is situated in Kolkata. Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, London, and New York.