Women's Reservation in Legislative Bodies
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs12
- Articles1
Foundation
Static background & why it matters
Women's reservation in legislative bodies is a long-standing proposal for affirmative action to ensure adequate representation of women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. It seeks to address the historical underrepresentation of women in political decision-making, drawing parallels with reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, is the latest legislative attempt to enshrine this principle constitutionally.
Addresses gender inequality in political representation, a significant social and political reform with implications for democratic participation and governance.
- Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023
- The 128th Constitutional Amendment Bill, passed by Parliament in 2023, providing for 33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
- Delimitation
- The process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies to reflect changes in population, a prerequisite for the implementation of women's reservation.
- Article 330A
- New article inserted by the 2023 Adhiniyam, providing for reservation of seats for women in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
- Article 332A
- New article inserted by the 2023 Adhiniyam, providing for reservation of seats for women in the Legislative Assemblies of States.
- Article 334A
- New article inserted by the 2023 Adhiniyam, specifying the commencement and duration of the reservation, linking it to the first census conducted after the Adhiniyam's commencement and subsequent delimitation.
Static core
Acts, bodies, facts & tables
The demand for women's reservation has a long history, with various attempts to introduce legislation since the mid-1990s. The Women's Reservation Bill was first introduced in 1996 and subsequently in 1998, 1999, and 2008, but failed to pass due to lack of consensus and political hurdles.
Arguments in favor of reservation include addressing historical injustice, ensuring women's perspectives in policy-making, empowering women, and improving the quality of governance. Proponents often point to the positive impact of women's reservation in PRIs and ULBs, where it has led to increased women's participation and focus on women-centric issues.
- Bill Number
- 128th Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2023
- Act Name
- Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023
- Reservation Percentage
- 33% of seats
- Applicability
- Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, Delhi Legislative Assembly
- Implementation Condition
- Requires completion of the next Census and subsequent Delimitation exercise
- Duration
- 15 years from commencement, extendable by Parliament
- Constitutional Articles Added
- Articles 330A, 332A, 334A
| Arguments For | Arguments Against |
|---|---|
| Enhances political representation and gender equality. | May lead to 'proxy' candidates controlled by male relatives. |
| Brings women's unique perspectives to policy-making. | Rotation of reserved seats may hinder accountability and long-term constituency development. |
| Empowers women and breaks patriarchal structures. | Could be seen as tokenism rather than genuine empowerment. |
| Improves governance and focus on social issues (e.g., health, education). | May compromise meritocracy by reserving seats. |
| Successful precedent in Panchayati Raj Institutions. | Difficulty in defining 'women's issues' and ensuring diverse representation among women. |
| Provision | Detail |
|---|---|
| Reservation Percentage | One-third (33%) of total seats for women. |
| Applicable Bodies | Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, Delhi Legislative Assembly. |
| Sub-quota | Reservation for SC/ST women within the 33% quota. |
| Implementation Trigger | After the first census conducted post-commencement of the Adhiniyam and subsequent delimitation exercise. |
| Duration | For a period of 15 years from commencement, extendable by Parliament. |
| Rotation of Seats | Reserved seats to be rotated after each delimitation exercise, as determined by law made by Parliament. |
| Year | Event/Legislation |
|---|---|
| 1992-93 | 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendments (1/3rd reservation for women in PRIs/ULBs) |
| 1996 | First Women's Reservation Bill introduced in Lok Sabha |
| 1998, 1999 | Bill reintroduced but lapsed |
| 2008 | Women's Reservation Bill passed in Rajya Sabha, but lapsed in Lok Sabha |
| 2023 | Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (128th Constitutional Amendment Bill) passed by Parliament |
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Parliament of India | Legislates |
Exam lens
Prelims framing, traps & PYQs
For Prelims, UPSC may focus on the specific constitutional amendment number (128th), the name of the Adhiniyam (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), the percentage of reservation (33%), the bodies it applies to (Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, Delhi Assembly), and the key conditions for its implementation (next Census and Delimitation). Questions might also test the newly inserted Articles (330A, 332A, 334A) and the duration of the reservation. Knowledge of the 73rd and 74th Amendments as precedents is also crucial.
For Mains, the topic is highly relevant for GS-I (Social Issues - Women's empowerment, social justice) and GS-II (Polity & Governance - Constitutional provisions, electoral reforms, democratic participation, challenges to governance). Questions could revolve around the arguments for and against women's reservation, its potential impact on Indian democracy and governance, challenges in implementation (e.g., delimitation, rotation of seats), comparison with reservation in PRIs, and alternative mechanisms for women's political empowerment. An analytical approach discussing the socio-political implications and the future trajectory of women's representation would be expected.
- Proposed 1/3rd reservation for women in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- Aims to increase women's political representation.
- Requires a constitutional amendment and subsequent delimitation.
- Similar provisions exist in Panchayati Raj and ULBs.
- Debates on its implementation and impact on political landscape.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2022 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2020 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2020 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2018 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2017 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2013 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
Latest
Current affairs & evolution
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, has constitutionally mandated 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, but its implementation is contingent upon the completion of the next Census and a subsequent delimitation exercise.
The passage of the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam in September 2023 marks a significant legislative milestone, converting a long-pending political demand into a constitutional provision. However, the Adhiniyam includes a crucial clause that defers its implementation until after the first Census conducted following its commencement and the subsequent delimitation exercise based on that Census.
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2013
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2017
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2018
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2020
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2020
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Multi-statement analysis
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Prelims 2022
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Implications of Increasing Size of Lok Sabha
Proposal for reserving a fixed percentage of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, aimed at enhancing their political participation.
See also
Dashed boxes: related topics without a notes page yet. Tap a solid box to open notes.
Past papers
2013–2025 · 12 questions
In the news
Implications of Increasing Size of Lok Sabha
Proposal for reserving a fixed percentage of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, aimed at enhancing their political participation.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
* Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no specific information available about which Lok Sabha session the provisions will be implemented. * Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. * Statement 3 is also correct: In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, the Bill sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government/including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four fixed ranks. There are broadly two categories based on parliamentary convention - Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State (with or without independent charge). The number of ranks can vary based on the specific structure chosen by the government. Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Amendment to the Constitution limits the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in:
The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha, the two houses of India's Parliament, have different powers and functions. While the Lok Sabha is the lower house with members directly elected by the people, the Rajya Sabha is the upper house with members indirectly elected by the states. However, when it comes to amending the Constitution, both houses have equal powers. According to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, any amendment to the Constitution requires the approval of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. Therefore, for a constitutional amendment to be valid, it must be approved by both houses of Parliament, giving them equal powers in the process.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Show 7 more PYQs
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. India follows a single citizenship system, which means that every Indian is a citizen of India, irrespective of the place of his/her residence within the country. The concept of domicile does not exist in the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, the Head of State is the President, and as per Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, any person who is a citizen of India and is 35 years of age or above is eligible to become the President. It does not matter whether the person is a citizen by birth or by naturalization. Statement 3 is also incorrect. As per the Citizenship Act 1955, the Central Government has the power to deprive a person of his/her citizenship under certain circumstances.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
* Article 43A of the Indian Constitution pertains to the "Participation of workers in the management of industries" and is a part of Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). * It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to promote industrial democracy by ensuring that workers have a role in decision-making within industries. * This provision aligns with the broader goal of economic justice and socialistic principles, as envisioned in the Directive Principles, by advocating for worker participation in industrial management. * Thus, Article 43A emphasizes the importance of participatory management in industries to promote industrial harmony and economic democracy.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitutions
Select the answer using the code given below:
* Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. - This statement is correct. Part IXA of the Indian Constitution (added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992) deals with Municipalities and provides for their powers and functions. * Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. - This statement is correct. Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution (Articles 352 to 360) deals with 'Emergency Provisions' outlining situations like national emergency, state emergency, and financial emergency. * Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution - This statement is correct. Part XX of the Indian Constitution contains only Article 368, which deals with the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for it. _Therefore, all three statements are correct._
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by Parliament. Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights. Hence, neither of the statements is correct.
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for amending the Constitution. It grants Parliament the authority to amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition * Parliament can add new provisions or articles to the Constitution that were not originally included. This allows the Constitution to evolve by incorporating new concepts or requirements. * Example: The 93rd Amendment Act, 2005 added Article 15(5), which allows for reservations in educational institutions for backward classes. 2. Variation * Parliament has the power to modify or alter existing provisions of the Constitution. This means changes can be made to existing articles without removing them entirely. * Example: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 altered several provisions, including changes to the Preamble and the relationship between the President and Parliament. 3. Repeal * Parliament can also repeal provisions of the Constitution, effectively removing them. This allows for the removal of outdated or irrelevant provisions. * Example: The 26th Amendment Act, 1971 abolished the privy purse that was being paid to former rulers of princely states. _Therefore, the correct answer is All of the above (1, 2, and 3)._