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Implications of Increasing Size of Lok Sabha

21 May 2026 Source

Exam Summary

The article discusses three proposed Bills, including the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, a Delimitation Bill, and a Bill extending these provisions to Union Territories with legislatures. Key proposals include increasing the Lok Sabha's maximum strength from 550 to 850, basing state-wise seat allocation on population (with the next delimitation specifically using the 2011 Census), and implementing a one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha for 15 years, effective after delimitation. These changes are projected to significantly alter the political landscape by shifting the relative share of Lok Sabha seats among states, with states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Rajasthan gaining representation, while Kerala and Tamil Nadu would see a reduction, thereby impacting national policy-making power.

GS Paper II: Indian Constitution—historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure. Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein. Parliament and State Legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these. Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act. Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies. Current Affairs of national importance.

Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • Proposed increase in Lok Sabha seats from 550 to 850.
  • Proposed Constitutional Amendment 131st.
  • Women's reservation 1/3rd of seats, valid for 15 years after delimitation.
  • Next delimitation proposed to be based on the 2011 Census.
  • States projected to gain seats Rajasthan, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh.
  • States projected to lose seats Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
  • The Bills extend provisions to UTs with legislatures Delhi, J&K, and Puducherry.
  • The freezing of Lok Sabha seats until the first Census after 2026 is proposed to be removed.

Elimination Traps

  • Confusing the specific Census year (2011) for the next delimitation with the general provision of 'Census specified by Parliament (not necessarily the latest)' for future allocations.
  • Misremembering the proposed Constitutional Amendment number (131st).
  • Incorrectly identifying the states that gain or lose representation.
  • Assuming women's reservation is immediate versus being effective after delimitation.
  • The duration of women's reservation (15 years) and its post-delimitation implementation.
  • The current constitutional freeze on delimitation and its proposed removal.

Static Concepts

  • Lok Sabha (composition, powers, functions)
  • Delimitation (Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution)
  • Constitutional Amendment (Article 368)
  • Women's Reservation (historical context, debates)
  • Federalism (representation of states, balance of power)
  • Census (role in delimitation and representation)
  • Parliamentary Sessions (Budget session)
  • Union Territories with Legislatures

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • Prelims
Question areas
  • Which Constitutional Amendment Bill proposes to increase the Lok Sabha strength to 850?
Question areas
  • What is the proposed basis for the next delimitation exercise according to the new Bills?
Question areas
  • Which of the following states are likely to gain/lose Lok Sabha seats if the proposed delimitation based on the 2011 Census is implemented?
Question areas
  • What is the proposed duration for women's reservation in Lok Sabha as per the new Bill?
Question areas
  • Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Delimitation Bill. (Statements on Census used, UTs covered, etc.)
Question areas
  • Mains
Question areas
  • "The proposed increase in Lok Sabha seats and delimitation based on the 2011 Census could significantly alter the federal balance of power in India." Discuss the implications of these proposals on inter-state relations and national policy-making. (GS-II: Polity, Federalism)
Question areas
  • Analyze the arguments for and against increasing the size of the Lok Sabha and implementing women's reservation, considering the demographic shifts and principles of representation. (GS-II: Polity, Social Justice)
Question areas
  • Examine the role of the Delimitation Commission in ensuring fair representation. How do the new proposals impact its functioning and the principle of 'one person, one vote'? (GS-II: Polity)
Question areas
  • Discuss the challenges and opportunities presented by the proposed women's reservation in legislative bodies. (GS-II: Social Justice, Polity)
Conceptual Recurrence

Related Prelims PYQs

Ranked by topic match, theme match, recency, and recurring UPSC patterns.

UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A. 1, 2 and 3
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 2 and 3 only

* Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no specific information available about which Lok Sabha session the provisions will be implemented.  * Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. * Statement 3 is also correct: In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, the Bill sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis.

Indian Polity & Governance Current Affairs Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2025 Economy

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A. I, II and III
  2. B. I, II and IV
  3. C. I, III and IV
  4. D. II, III and IV
Explanation
Correct answer
C. I, III and IV

The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.

Indian Economy Indian Polity & Governance Public Finance & Taxation Federal Structure & Centre State Relations Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2018 Economy

Consider the following statements

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 and 3 only
  3. C. 1 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability. Statement 2 is not correct. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)).

Indian Economy Indian Polity & Governance Fiscal Policy & Public Debt Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
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With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 only

Statement 1 is Correct: The Fourteenth Finance Commission indeed increased the devolution of tax revenue from the central government to the states. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While promoting formula-based devolution, the commission does not provide recommendations regarding sector-specific grants to ensure focus on critical areas.

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Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

  1. A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  2. B. Participation of workers in management of industries
  3. C. Right to work, education and public assistance
  4. D. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Participation of workers in management of industries

* Article 43A of the Indian Constitution pertains to the "Participation of workers in the management of industries" and is a part of Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). * It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to promote industrial democracy by ensuring that workers have a role in decision-making within industries. * This provision aligns with the broader goal of economic justice and socialistic principles, as envisioned in the Directive Principles, by advocating for worker participation in industrial management. * Thus, Article 43A emphasizes the importance of participatory management in industries to promote industrial harmony and economic democracy.

Indian Polity & Governance Directive Principles Of State Policy Constitutional Amendments & Structure
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Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

  1. A. Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
  2. B. Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
  3. C. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
  4. D. Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Explanation
Correct answer
C. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Inter-State quarantine falls under the purview of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This is because matters of inter-state significance, especially those related to health and disease control, are best handled by the central government to ensure uniformity and prevent the spread of diseases across state borders. _Let's examine why the other options are incorrect:_ *  Option A is incorrect: Inter-State trade and commerce is explicitly mentioned in the Union List (List I), giving the central government the power to regulate commerce that transcends state boundaries. * Option B is incorrect While individual states have some powers related to internal migration, Inter state migration is mentioned in the Union List. * Option D is incorrect Corporation tax, levied on the net income of companies, is a subject under the Union List. However, the Constitution allows for the sharing of corporation tax revenue with states.

Indian Polity & Governance Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2014 Indian Polity

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

  1. A. advisory jurisdiction
  2. B. appellate jurisdiction.
  3. C. original jurisdiction
  4. D. writ jurisdiction
Explanation
Correct answer
C. original jurisdiction

Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the different units of the Indian Federation such as between the Centre and one or more states and, between the states.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2023 Economy

Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

  1. A. Only two
  2. B. Only three
  3. C. Only four
  4. D. All five
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Only three

Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart:

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UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A. Only one
  2. B. Only two
  3. C. All three
  4. D. None
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Only two

* Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 244(1) of the Constitution's Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas are areas that the President may declare to be such by order after consultation with the Governor of that State.  * Statement 2 is correct: District is considered as the largest administrative unit which forms the Scheduled Area while the lowest administrative unit is the cluster of villages in the Block.  * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India states in para 3 that the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the Administration of the said areas.

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UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

  1. A. 1st Amendment
  2. B. 42nd Amendment
  3. C. 44th Amendment
  4. D. 86thAmendment
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1st Amendment

* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Fundamental Rights Judiciary & Judicial Review