Writ of Habeas Corpus
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
It's a fundamental constitutional tool for protecting individual liberty, a cornerstone of judicial review, and frequently tested in both Prelims and Mains for its significance in upholding fundamental rights.
Habeas Corpus is one of the five prerogative writs issued by the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) to enforce fundamental rights. It literally means 'to have the body of' and is issued to produce a person who has been detained, before the court, to examine the legality of their detention, thereby safeguarding individual liberty.
Facts & tables
- Purpose
- Issued to secure the release of a person unlawfully detained, ensuring personal liberty against arbitrary arrest.
- Scope
- Can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals.
- Limitations
- Cannot be issued if the detention is lawful, or if the person is held by a competent court.
- Constitutional Basis
- Supreme Court issues it under Article 32, and High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Fundamental Rights |
| Conceptual area | Constitutional Law |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Supreme Court of India | Issues writs |
| High Courts | Issues writs |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Statement-based questions
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- One of five prerogative writs.
- Issued by SC (Art 32) and HC (Art 226).
- Means 'to have the body of'.
- Checks legality of detention.
- Safeguards individual liberty.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2022 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2021 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2019 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2019 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2019 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
Timeline
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Fundamental Rights
Conceptual area
-
Constitutional Law
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2019
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2019
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2019
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2021
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2022
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
The politics around Andhra Pradesh’s custodial deaths
Habeas Corpus is a writ issued by SC/HC (Art 32/226) to produce a detained person and check detention legality, protecting against arbitrary arrest.
See also
Past papers
2019–2023 · 8 questions
In the news
The politics around Andhra Pradesh’s custodial deaths
Habeas Corpus is a writ issued by SC/HC (Art 32/226) to produce a detained person and check detention legality, protecting against arbitrary arrest.
Try these PYQs
With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose. It is usually not usable against a private entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty. Statement 2 is correct: As explained above, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company when it is discharging a "public duty", so the statement is incomplete. Public Duty is Key: Mandamus aims to compel performance of a public duty, not just private functions. Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Note (on Statement 2): In UPSC Prelims, statements must be judged as written, without adding extra conditions. A company does not become subject to the writ of Mandamus only because it is a Government company. Government ownership by itself is not enough. Since Statement 2 is framed in this limited and absolute sense, and no additional condition like “public duty” is mentioned, the statement is treated as correct.
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
Article 21: This article states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has expanded the scope of personal liberty to include various fundamental rights, including the right to marry a person of one's choice. Shamima Begum vs. State of Assam (2018): The court ruled that a woman has the right to marry a person of her choice, reinforcing that personal decisions related to marriage fall under individual autonomy and personal liberty as guaranteed by Article 21. Hadiya's case (Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M): The Supreme Court upheld the right to marry as a fundamental right under Article 21. It ruled that an adult woman is free to make decisions regarding her marriage, rejecting attempts to interfere in personal choices. The court emphasized that state or societal disapproval cannot restrict an individual’s right to marry.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders and decrees necessary to ensure "complete justice" in any case before it. This power is vast and extraordinary. Article 142 allows the Supreme Court to ensure that ordinary laws comply with the Constitution and that complete justice is delivered. Even if an ordinary law creates limitations, the Supreme Court can override it using Article 142 to achieve a just outcome.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of the administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement I is correct: It has frequently been argued that reservation is contrary to efficiency and merit. Even the Supreme Court of India appeared to have agreed with this argument in some of its judgments, holding that Article 335 mention of the term efficiency of administration will limit the scope of Article 16(4) provision for reservation in services. * Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. * Article 335 of the Indian Constitution only mentions the efficiency of administration and does not define the same.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.
Show 3 more PYQs
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. High Courts have the power to declare central laws unconstitutional. This power is derived from their inherent jurisdiction to uphold the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Supreme Court cannot question the amending power of the Parliament, it can review the constitutional validity of an amendment. The landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala established the doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Any amendment that violates this basic structure can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
Option A is correct. In a federal system, power is distributed between the central government and the states. There can be disputes about the division of power or interpretation of the Constitution.
An independent judiciary acts as an impartial umpire to settle these disputes and uphold the Constitution. It ensures that both the central government and the states function within their constitutional boundaries.The other options, while relevant to Indian polity, are not exclusive to federal systems Option B is incorrect. The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units is a common feature in both federal and some unitary states with devolved power. Option C is incorrect. The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties is not a defining characteristic of federalism. Political party affiliation doesn't necessarily determine the federal structure. Option D is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights being enforceable by Courts of Law, while essential for a democracy, this feature exists even in some non-federal states.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in Jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Police Custody means that the police have the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In Police custody, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in Judicial Custody, he is locked up in the jail. Statement 2 is correct: During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation is necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect.