Editorials thehindu.com

Bat for the better: On the BCCI and the RTI Act - The Hindu

22 May 2026 Source

Exam Summary

The article discusses the ongoing debate regarding the applicability of the Right to Information (RTI) Act to the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). While the BCCI maintains it is a private commercial body, various entities like the Supreme Court and the Law Commission have highlighted its public duties, monopoly status, and significant state benefits (e.g., tax exemptions, use of public infrastructure, police deployment). The Central Information Commission (CIC) recently ruled to exclude the BCCI from the RTI Act, reversing a previous order. The article argues that courts should treat tax exemptions as state grants and suggests amending Section 2(h) of the RTI Act to include bodies discharging public duties, especially those with monopoly power, while also considering their commercial interests.

GS Paper II: Indian Polity and Governance - Statutory, Regulatory and various Quasi-judicial Bodies; Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation; Transparency & Accountability.

UPSC concepts in this story

These are durable syllabus ideas — use them for revision, not article memory.

Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • Understand the definition of 'public authority' under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act.
  • Know the arguments for and against bringing the BCCI under the RTI Act's ambit.
  • Familiarize with the roles of the Central Information Commission (CIC), Supreme Court, and Law Commission in this context.
  • Recognize the significance of tax exemptions and state benefits (e.g., land, police, infrastructure) as indicators of 'state financing' or 'state control'.
  • Understand the concept of writ jurisdiction applying to private bodies performing public functions.

Elimination Traps

  • Assuming BCCI is a government body.
  • Confusing the powers and decisions of the CIC, Supreme Court, and Law Commission.
  • Misinterpreting the criteria for a body to be considered a 'public authority' under the RTI Act.

Static Concepts

  • Right to Information (RTI) Act
  • Public Authority (under RTI Act)
  • Section 2(h) of RTI Act
  • Writ Jurisdiction
  • Tax Exemptions
  • Monopoly Power
  • National Sports Federation

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • Questions on the scope and applicability of the Right to Information Act, particularly concerning non-governmental bodies performing public functions.
Question areas
  • The role and powers of the Central Information Commission (CIC) and its relationship with the judiciary.
Question areas
  • Judicial pronouncements regarding the definition of 'State' or 'public authority' for the purpose of fundamental rights or statutory acts.
Question areas
  • The implications of tax exemptions and other state support for the accountability of private organizations.
Conceptual Recurrence

Related Prelims PYQs

Ranked by topic match, theme match, recency, and recurring UPSC patterns.

UPSC Prelims 2021 Indian Polity

With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 Only
  2. B. 2 Only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 Only

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2019 Economy

Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B. 2 and 3 only
  3. C. 1 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
The independent regulator, Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), set up under the TRAI Act of 1997, was the first independent regulator in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB is tasked to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Statement 3 is correct: The Appellate Tribunal established under Section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (Central Act 36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal to appeal against the decisions of the PNGRB.

Indian Economy Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :

  1. A. a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
  2. B. the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
  3. C. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
  4. D. the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Explanation
Correct answer
C. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

Writ of Prohibition: * It is a judicial order issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal. * It prevents the lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to law. * Purpose: To stop ongoing proceedings in a case where the lower court lacks jurisdiction or violates legal procedures. * Nature: It is preventive, ensuring the lower court does not act unlawfully rather than correcting a wrong decision after it has occurred. * Example: If a tribunal starts hearing a case that legally falls under the jurisdiction of a civil court, the Writ of Prohibition can halt such proceedings. * Comparison with Certiorari: Prohibition is issued before judgment to stop proceedings, whereas Certiorari is issued after judgment to quash orders passed unlawfully.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Fundamental Rights
UPSC Prelims 2019 Indian Polity

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. None of the above
Explanation
Correct answer
D. None of the above

Statement 1 is incorrect. High Courts have the power to declare central laws unconstitutional. This power is derived from their inherent jurisdiction to uphold the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Supreme Court cannot question the amending power of the Parliament, it can review the constitutional validity of an amendment. The landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala established the doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Any amendment that violates this basic structure can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

  1. A. 1st Amendment
  2. B. 42nd Amendment
  3. C. 44th Amendment
  4. D. 86thAmendment
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1st Amendment

* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Fundamental Rights Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2020 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2 only
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by Parliament. Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights. Hence, neither of the statements is correct.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2019 Indian Polity

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

  1. A. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
  2. B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
  3. C. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
  4. D. State legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Explanation
Correct answer
B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders and decrees necessary to ensure "complete justice" in any case before it. This power is vast and extraordinary. Article 142 allows the Supreme Court to ensure that ordinary laws comply with the Constitution and that complete justice is delivered. Even if an ordinary law creates limitations, the Supreme Court can override it using Article 142 to achieve a just outcome.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Separation Of Powers & Constitutional Ideals
UPSC Prelims 2018 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2020 Indian Polity

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

  1. A. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
  2. B. not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
  3. C. a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
  4. D. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.
Explanation
Correct answer
D. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

* The correct answer is D. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts. * The Preamble of the Indian Constitution sets out the guiding principles and objectives of the document. While it is an integral part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case), it cannot be directly enforced in a court of law. * The Supreme Court of India has clarified that the Preamble can be used to interpret ambiguous provisions within the Constitution, but cannot be used to strike down laws as unconstitutional on its own. It serves as a guiding light for understanding the spirit and intent of the Constitution.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2015 Indian Polity

Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

  1. A. The President of India
  2. B. The Prime Minister of India
  3. C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
  4. D. The Supreme Court of India
Explanation
Correct answer
D. The Supreme Court of India

A custodian is a person entrusted with the custody or care of something. - Whenever Fundamental Rights are denied or restricted, it can be challenged in the Supreme Court under Article 32; - The dispute between Centre and State can be settled in the Supreme Court under Article 131; - the Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts in India under Article 141; - For the enforcement of decrees - Article 142; - President of India consulting Supreme Court under Article 143; - After all, under Article 13, all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void ( Doctrine of Judicial Review). - Supreme Court judgments are the law of the land; Based on the above facts, the Supreme Court takes care of the Constitution. So, simply the Supreme Court is the Custodian of the Constitution.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Fundamental Rights