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Centre issues State alerts after WHO declares Ebola emergency

22 May 2026 Source

Exam Summary

Following the World Health Organization's (WHO) declaration of the Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Uganda as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC), the Indian Centre has directed all States and Union Territories to enhance surveillance, hospital preparedness, and rapid response systems. States are advised to intensify surveillance under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) for unusual fever clusters, especially among travelers from affected regions. Key measures include identifying isolation facilities, ensuring adequate trained healthcare personnel, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and utilizing the Indian Council of Medical Research's (ICMR) National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune, for testing. The directive also emphasizes reinforcing infection prevention and control practices, conducting refresher training, establishing multidisciplinary Rapid Response Teams, and disseminating accurate public information to prevent misinformation.

GS Paper II: Governance (Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation), Health (Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health). GS Paper III: Science and Technology (Developments and their applications and effects in everyday life; Awareness in the fields of Biotechnology, Microbiology). International Relations: Global health governance, role of international organizations.

Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • Ebola is a viral hemorrhagic fever, currently declared a PHEIC by WHO due to outbreaks in DRC and Uganda.
  • India's response involves the Union Health Ministry, States/UTs, ICMR, and NIV Pune.
  • The Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) is a key national program for disease monitoring.
  • Key symptoms of Ebola include fever, weakness, muscle pain, headache, sore throat, vomiting, diarrhoea, stomach pain, rash, and red eyes.

Elimination Traps

  • Confusing the specific countries affected by the current Ebola outbreak (DRC, Uganda).
  • Misidentifying the body responsible for declaring a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (WHO).
  • Overlooking the role of state-level health infrastructure and coordination in India's response.

Static Concepts

  • Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)
  • Disease Surveillance
  • Infection Prevention and Control (IPC)
  • Rapid Response Teams (RRTs)
  • Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
  • Quarantine/Isolation protocols
  • International Health Regulations (IHR)

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • What is a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) and its significance in global health governance?
Question areas
  • Discuss India's preparedness and response mechanisms for managing international health emergencies, including the role of central and state governments.
Question areas
  • Elaborate on the functions and importance of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) and institutions like ICMR and NIV in India's public health system.
Question areas
  • Analyze the challenges in controlling infectious disease outbreaks in a globalized world and the importance of international cooperation.
Conceptual Recurrence

Related Prelims PYQs

Ranked by topic match, theme match, recency, and recurring UPSC patterns.

UPSC Prelims 2013 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

Indian Polity & Governance Social Justice & Development Federal Structure & Centre State Relations Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2023 Social Issues & Schemes

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

* Statement I is correct: India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis. * Statement II is correct: India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts.
Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Social Justice & Development Indian Polity & Governance Welfare Schemes & Social Policies Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2015 Indian Polity

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -

  1. A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
  2. B. determine the boundaries between states
  3. C. determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
  4. D. protect the interests of all the border States
Explanation
Correct answer
A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule: Applies to all states except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It focuses on Management and administration of Scheduled Areas: These are areas with a high concentration of tribal populations. The schedule grants them some autonomy and safeguards their traditional rights over land and resources. Establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils: These councils advise the Governor on matters related to the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes. Sixth Schedule: Applies to the four aforementioned northeastern states with significant tribal populations. It provides greater autonomy compared to the Fifth Schedule by Creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs): These councils have a greater degree of administrative and legislative power within their designated areas. Special provisions for administration of tribal areas: This includes protection of customary law, inheritance practices, and social customs of the tribes.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Welfare Schemes & Social Policies Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2020 Science & Technology

What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCVs) are effective in preventing several serious diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria. This includes pneumonia, meningitis (inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord), and sepsis (a life-threatening blood infection). Statement 2 is also correct. The growing prevalence of antibiotic-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae is a major concern. PCV vaccination helps reduce dependence on antibiotics, particularly for these resistant strains. This lowers the risk of antibiotic overuse and emergence of further resistance. Statement 3 is incorrect. While most people experience no serious side effects with PCV vaccines, there can be mild reactions like redness, swelling, or soreness at the injection site. Serious allergic reactions are rare.

Science & Technology Social Justice & Development Microbiology & Epidemiology Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2024 Social Issues & Schemes

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B. 2 and 3 only
  3. C. 1 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
D. 1, 2 and 3

* Statement 1:  Correct.  The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is 100% centrally funded by the Central Government for Union Territories and North-Eastern States. For other states, the funding pattern may vary, but it largely involves central assistance for implementing the scheme. * Statement 2: Correct. Cadastral Maps (detailed maps showing boundaries of individual land parcels) are being digitized under the scheme. This aims to create accurate digital land records, enabling better governance and reduced disputes. * Statement 3: Correct. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate Records of Rights (RoR) from local languages into languages recognized by the Constitution of India. This improves accessibility and ensures land records are understood by a wider audience.

Indian Polity & Governance Science & Technology Welfare Schemes & Social Policies Emerging Information Technologies
UPSC Prelims 2022 Indian Polity

Consider the following

1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. Digi Locker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct answer
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

An open-source digital platform is essentially a software platform where the underlying code is freely available for anyone to see, modify, and distribute. This openness fosters collaboration, transparency, and innovation in software development. All of the above (1. Aarogya Setu, 2. CoWIN, 3. Digi Locker, 4. DIKSHA) are built on top of open-source digital platforms. - Aarogya Setu initially wasn't open-source, but the Indian government later made its source code available. - CoWIN leverages open-source software for its development. - DigiLocker utilizes an open-source platform called Digital Locker System.
- DIKSHA is built on the open-source platform Sunbird.

Science & Technology Indian Polity & Governance Emerging Information Technologies Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2019 Science & Technology

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

  1. A. Department of Science and Technology
  2. B. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  3. C. NITI Aayog
  4. D. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Explanation
Correct answer
C. NITI Aayog

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is set up under the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), which is the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Government of India. The Atal Innovation Mission was launched by the Government of India in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. The key objectives of the Atal Innovation Mission are : 1. To create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. 2. To establish Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) in schools across India to foster a culture of innovation from a young age. 3. To set up Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) to support entrepreneurs and startups. 4. To provide mentorship and funding support to innovative startups and entrepreneurs.

Indian Polity & Governance Science & Technology Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2021 Indian Polity

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

  1. A. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
  2. B. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
  3. C. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
  4. D. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Explanation
Correct answer
A. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

Option A is correct. In a federal system, power is distributed between the central government and the states. There can be disputes about the division of power or interpretation of the Constitution.
An independent judiciary acts as an impartial umpire to settle these disputes and uphold the Constitution. It ensures that both the central government and the states function within their constitutional boundaries.The other options, while relevant to Indian polity, are not exclusive to federal systems Option B is incorrect. The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units is a common feature in both federal and some unitary states with devolved power. Option C is incorrect. The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties is not a defining characteristic of federalism. Political party affiliation doesn't necessarily determine the federal structure. Option D is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights being enforceable by Courts of Law, while essential for a democracy, this feature exists even in some non-federal states.

Indian Polity & Governance Federal Structure & Centre State Relations Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2025 Indian Polity

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

  1. A. I and II only
  2. B. II and III only
  3. C. I and III only
  4. D. I, II and III
Explanation
Correct answer
A. I and II only

Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2013 Indian Polity

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. C. 2 and 4 only
  4. D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 1, 3 and 4 only

The National Development Council (NDC) in India is comprised of the following members: * The Prime Minister (who chairs the council)
* Ministers of the Union Cabinet
* Chief Ministers of the States The Chairman, Finance Commission - while the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending the devolution of financial resources from the central government to the states, the Chairman is not a member of the NDC. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

Indian Polity & Governance Executive & Council Of Ministers Federal Structure & Centre State Relations