On measuring freedom of the press in India

* Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no specific information available about which Lok Sabha session the provisions will be implemented.  * Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. * Statement 3 is also correct: In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, the Bill sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis.

Option B is the correct answer. A parliamentary system of government is one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature. This responsibility means that the executive stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The moment the confidence is lost, it can be removed by Parliament by passing the no-confidence motion. This is the same feature which hampers the stability of the parliamentary system. Options A and C are incorrect. Parliamentary system functions irrespective of whether all parties have representation. The government is not directly elected by the people but indirectly through their representative in Parliament. Therefore, the instrument to remove the government through public vote is not available in the parliamentary system; this is a feature found in direct democracies. Option D is incorrect. It goes against the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy which requires an executive responsible to the legislature. Therefore the correct answer is B.

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. Rather, Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion. Statement 2 is correct: A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am, which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion, and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion of the motion.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.

The Cabinet form of Government is a fundamental feature of a parliamentary system, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature. This principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Key Aspects of Collective Responsibility: - Decisions of the Cabinet are binding on all ministers and even if they personally disagree, they must publicly support them. - If Parliament passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign. - This ensures accountability, transparency, and democratic control, preventing arbitrary rule by the executive. Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Statement 1 is Correct: The key difference lies in Parliamentary Supremacy. In the British model, Parliament is considered sovereign. This means its legislative powers are supreme, and its laws cannot be challenged by any other body. In India, the Constitution is supreme. Parliament's power to legislate is limited by the Constitution. The judiciary can review laws passed by Parliament and strike them down if they violate the Constitution. Statement 2 is also Correct: This is a specific example of the limitation on Parliament's power in India. The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has the authority to review amendments made to existing laws (Acts) and determine if they are constitutional. This power of judicial review ensures the Constitution remains the supreme law.

(A) is incorrect: Direct election of the lower house is a feature of Representative Democracy. Many Presidential systems (such as the USA) also have directly elected legislatures; therefore, this is not the distinguishing factor of a Parliamentary system. (B) is incorrect: The authority to amend the Constitution is a matter of Constitutional Sovereignty. This power exists in various forms of government, including both Parliamentary and Presidential models. (C) is incorrect: The fact that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent house is a Federal feature intended to maintain the representation of the States. It does not define the relationship between the Executive and the Legislature. (D) is correct: As per Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This "Collective Responsibility" is the bedrock of the Parliamentary form of government, as the executive's survival depends on the support of the legislature.

✅ Statement I: Correct
The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94). ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality. ✅ Statement III: Correct
The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94). Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

* Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.   * The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court.  * The Commission’s orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies concerned, but they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. * Composition: Retired Supreme Court Judge, Chief Election Commissioner and respective state election commissioners.

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for amending the Constitution. It grants Parliament the authority to amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition * Parliament can add new provisions or articles to the Constitution that were not originally included. This allows the Constitution to evolve by incorporating new concepts or requirements. * Example: The 93rd Amendment Act, 2005 added Article 15(5), which allows for reservations in educational institutions for backward classes. 2. Variation * Parliament has the power to modify or alter existing provisions of the Constitution. This means changes can be made to existing articles without removing them entirely. * Example: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 altered several provisions, including changes to the Preamble and the relationship between the President and Parliament. 3. Repeal * Parliament can also repeal provisions of the Constitution, effectively removing them. This allows for the removal of outdated or irrelevant provisions. * Example: The 26th Amendment Act, 1971 abolished the privy purse that was being paid to former rulers of princely states. _Therefore, the correct answer is All of the above (1, 2, and 3)._