Editorials thehindu.com

Should the NEET-UG be decentralised?

22 May 2026 Source

Exam Summary

The article discusses the controversies surrounding the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET-UG), including paper leaks, corruption, and administrative lapses by the National Testing Agency (NTA). It explores the debate on whether the exam should be decentralized, with arguments for and against a national single-window exam. Proponents of decentralization highlight the disadvantages faced by rural, poor, and government school students due to unequal access to coaching and resources, and suggest allowing states to conduct their own exams. They also point to issues with private medical college fee regulation and the high-stakes nature of the exam. The article mentions the K. Radhakrishnan Committee's recommendations, such as a two-stage examination system and limiting attempts, which were largely not implemented. It emphasizes the need for reforms to ensure fairness, equity, and reduce student distress.

GS Paper II: Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice

UPSC concepts in this story

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National Examination System Reforms and Governance

The article critically examines the challenges and proposed reforms for India's national examination system, using NEET-UG as a case study. It highlights iss...

Indian Polity & Governance 2 PYQs 1 developments

Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • NEET-UG is a national entrance exam for medical courses, conducted by the NTA.
  • The debate revolves around centralization vs. decentralization of the exam, with states seeking more autonomy.
  • The National Medical Commission Act governs medical education and fee regulation, with provisions for 50% seats in private colleges.
  • The K. Radhakrishnan Committee was formed after NEET 2024 paper leak allegations and recommended a two-stage exam and limiting attempts.
  • Tamil Nadu's 7.5% reservation for government school students is cited as a model for equitable access.
  • Issues include paper leaks, corruption, high-stakes nature of the exam, and unequal access to coaching.
  • The role of the Supreme Court in making NEET compulsory is mentioned.

Elimination Traps

  • Specific details of the K. Radhakrishnan Committee recommendations (e.g., two-stage exam, attempt limits).
  • The exact percentage of seats under fee regulation in private medical colleges (50%).
  • The year NEET was made compulsory or its inception year (2013).
  • Distinguishing between entrance and eligibility aspects of NEET.

Static Concepts

  • Federalism in education
  • Reservation policy
  • Regulatory bodies (NTA, NMC)
  • Judicial review (Supreme Court's role)
  • Equitable access to education
  • Transparency in public examinations

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • Role and functions of the National Testing Agency (NTA).
Question areas
  • Federalism in the context of education and national examinations.
Question areas
  • Challenges in ensuring social justice and equitable access to higher education in India.
Question areas
  • Recommendations of committees related to examination reforms (e.g., K. Radhakrishnan Committee).
Question areas
  • Provisions of the National Medical Commission Act related to admissions and fee regulation.
Question areas
  • Impact of high-stakes national exams on students and the education system.
Conceptual Recurrence

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UPSC Prelims 2013 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

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Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

* Statement I is correct: India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis. * Statement II is correct: India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts.
Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -

  1. A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
  2. B. determine the boundaries between states
  3. C. determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
  4. D. protect the interests of all the border States
Explanation
Correct answer
A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule: Applies to all states except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It focuses on Management and administration of Scheduled Areas: These are areas with a high concentration of tribal populations. The schedule grants them some autonomy and safeguards their traditional rights over land and resources. Establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils: These councils advise the Governor on matters related to the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes. Sixth Schedule: Applies to the four aforementioned northeastern states with significant tribal populations. It provides greater autonomy compared to the Fifth Schedule by Creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs): These councils have a greater degree of administrative and legislative power within their designated areas. Special provisions for administration of tribal areas: This includes protection of customary law, inheritance practices, and social customs of the tribes.

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UPSC Prelims 2015 Indian Polity

The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in the development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B. 2 and 4 only
  3. C. 1 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 1 and 3 only

The Panchayati Raj system is designed to empower rural communities by enabling 1. People's participation in development: This involves involving villagers in decision-making processes related to local development projects and resource allocation. 2. Political accountability: This is a desirable outcome, but not the sole purpose. The Panchayati Raj system aims to create a more participatory and democratic structure for rural development. 3. Democratic decentralization: Power is transferred from the central government to local bodies, allowing communities to address their specific needs and priorities. 4. Financial mobilization: While financial mobilization can be a consequence, it's not the fundamental objective. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are true.

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Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

  1. A. Third Schedule
  2. B. Fifth Schedule
  3. C. Ninth Schedule
  4. D. Twelfth Schedule
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Fifth Schedule

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. It aims to safeguard the rights, culture, and land of tribal communities while preventing their exploitation. Under this Schedule, the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas has special powers, including the authority to: - Declare any law related to the transfer of tribal land as null and void if it is found to violate the interests of the tribal population. - Prohibit or regulate the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring that tribal communities retain control over their ancestral land and resources. These provisions act as a protective mechanism, preventing tribal communities from being forced or manipulated into selling their land for activities like mining, industries, or large-scale projects without adequate safeguards.

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With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B. 1 and 3 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is not correct: The Government had launched a scheme viz Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme of Government of India, 1993. As per the scheme, Temporary status would be conferred on all casual labourers who were in employment and who have rendered a continuous service of at least one year, which means that they must have been engaged for at least 240 days (206 days in case of offices observing 5 days week). Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has decreed that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits as stipulated in the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. The Court's ruling stemmed from its interpretation of Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, wherein the definition of an "employee" encompasses a broad scope, including any individual engaged directly or indirectly in connection with an establishment's work and receiving wages. A bench of the Supreme Court affirmed this viewpoint. Statement 3 is correct: The government has the authority to specify through a notification that an establishment or industry is obligated to disburse wages exclusively via its bank account.

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Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

  1. A. Resident Indian citizens only
  2. B. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
  3. C. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
  4. D. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004
Explanation
Correct answer
C. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments

The Central Government introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 1, 2004 (except for armed forces). Subsequently, various State Governments adopted this architecture and implemented NPS with effect from different dates. Eligibility to join
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- Individuals who are aged between 18 60 years, including NRIs.
- After attaining 60 years of age, you will not be permitted to make further contributions to the NPS accounts

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Consider the following statements:

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government
of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts, etc., to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. It is not funded by WHO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s premier urban think tank, shaping the urban narrative since its establishment in 1976, it not an apex body. It is an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act.

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Consider the following statements :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualifications laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 2
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. 1 and 3
  4. D. 3 only
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

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Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

  1. A. Operation Sankalp
  2. B. Operation Maitri
  3. C. Operation Sadbhavana
  4. D. Operation Madad
Explanation
Correct answer
C. Operation Sadbhavana

Operation Sadbhavana is a unique initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and the North East regions. It focuses on winning the hearts and minds of the local population through various developmental activities and assistance. This includes providing education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and promoting skill development initiatives. _Let's look at the other options:_ * Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure maritime security in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. *  Operation Maitri refers to the Indian Armed Forces' humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations to assist friendly countries. A notable example was the aid provided to Nepal during the 2015 earthquake. *  Operation Madad is the Indian Navy's effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both within India and to neighboring countries.

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