UPSC Prelims 2024
Modern History
Consider the following pairs :
|Party | Its Leader|
|------- | --------|
|1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee|
|2. Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari|
|3. Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram|
|4. Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev|
How many of the above are correctly matched?
- A. Only one
- B. Only two
- C. Only three
- D. All four
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Only two
* Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee: This is correctly matched. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder and first president of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS), the forerunner of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). * Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari: This is incorrect. C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party, advocating free-market principles. The Socialist Party was established in the year 1934 and had leaders like Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, Yusuf Mehrali, Mino Masani, Acchut Patwardhan and Ashok Mehta. * Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram: This is correctly matched. Congress for Democracy (CFD) was a political party founded by Jagjivan Ram in 1977 after breaking away from the Indian National Congress. It was a short-lived party, formed during the Emergency to oppose Indira Gandhi's regime. It later merged with the Janata Party. * Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev: This is incorrect. The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in 1959, advocating for free-market economic policies and opposing the socialist policies of the Congress. Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party and is regarded as one of its key leaders. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched. Hence, the answer is B.
History Of India
Indian Polity & Governance
Indian National Movement & Leadership
UPSC Prelims 2019
Indian Polity
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
- A. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
- B. Absence of restraint
- C. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
- D. Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Opportunity to develop oneself fully
* Liberty is a fundamental concept in political philosophy and governance, ensuring that individuals have the freedom to act, think, and express themselves without undue restrictions while maintaining societal order. However, liberty does not mean absolute freedom but rather a balanced framework that allows personal development within the limits of law and respect for others' rights. * Protection against tyranny: While democratic institutions and laws protect individuals from oppression, liberty is not just about protection from tyranny; it also involves active freedom to pursue one's potential. * Absence of restraint: Absolute freedom can lead to anarchy and the violation of others' rights. Laws and regulations ensure that individual liberties do not infringe on the rights of others. * Opportunity to do whatever one likes: True liberty is not unrestricted freedom but freedom within legal and moral constraints. If everyone had complete freedom, conflicts would arise due to overlapping interests and lack of accountability. * Opportunity to develop oneself fully: This definition captures the essence of liberty in a polity. It implies the freedom to make choices, pursue goals, and express oneself without undue restrictions. This allows individuals to reach their full potential and contribute to society.
Indian Polity & Governance
Separation Of Powers & Constitutional Ideals
UPSC Prelims 2018
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements :
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India. Statement 2 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969. Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members. So, only statement 2 is correct.
Indian Polity & Governance
Parliamentary System & Procedures
UPSC Prelims 2020
Social Issues & Schemes
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next years
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Correct answer
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct: The MPLAD scheme lets MPs recommend works for local infrastructure and development needs in their constituency. The focus is on creating durable assets that benefit the community. Certain works are prohibited under MPLAD guidelines, which MPs must follow. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme requires MPs to allocate at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year to areas inhabited by the Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by the Scheduled Tribe population. If there are insufficient tribal populations in the MP's constituency, they can recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside their constituency, but within their State of election. If a state does not have Scheduled Tribe inhabited areas, this amount can be utilized in Scheduled Caste areas. Statement 3 is incorrect: Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable, meaning that funds left in the district can be carried forward and utilized in subsequent years. Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority is responsible for coordinating and supervising the works under the scheme at the district level. They also inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Based on the above information, the correct answer is (d).
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Parliamentary System & Procedures
UPSC Prelims 2025
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. I and II only
- B. II and III only
- C. I and III only
- D. I, II and III
Explanation
Correct answer
C. I and III only
✅ Statement I: Correct
The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94). ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality. ✅ Statement III: Correct
The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94). Therefore, statements I and III are correct.
Indian Polity & Governance
Parliamentary System & Procedures
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2025
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. I only
- B. II only
- C. Both I and II
- D. Neither I nor II
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither I nor II
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. Therefore, neither statement is correct.
Indian Polity & Governance
Parliamentary System & Procedures
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2024
Indian Polity
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Explanation
* Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. * The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court. * The Commission’s orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies concerned, but they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. * Composition: Retired Supreme Court Judge, Chief Election Commissioner and respective state election commissioners.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Parliamentary System & Procedures
UPSC Prelims 2024
Indian Polity
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
- A. C. Rajagopalachari
- B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- C. T.T. Krishnamachari
- D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946. This was a temporary position. He served as the Chairman for two days, after which Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. Here's why the other options are incorrect: * C. Rajagopalachari: He was the last Governor-General of India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. * Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. * T.T. Krishnamachari: He was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and later served as the Finance Minister of India.
Indian Polity & Governance
History Of India
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Indian National Movement & Leadership
UPSC Prelims 2024
Social Issues & Schemes
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
* Statement 1: Correct. The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is 100% centrally funded by the Central Government for Union Territories and North-Eastern States. For other states, the funding pattern may vary, but it largely involves central assistance for implementing the scheme. * Statement 2: Correct. Cadastral Maps (detailed maps showing boundaries of individual land parcels) are being digitized under the scheme. This aims to create accurate digital land records, enabling better governance and reduced disputes. * Statement 3: Correct. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate Records of Rights (RoR) from local languages into languages recognized by the Constitution of India. This improves accessibility and ensures land records are understood by a wider audience.
Indian Polity & Governance
Science & Technology
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Emerging Information Technologies
UPSC Prelims 2017
Indian Polity
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
- A. Federalism
- B. Democratic decentralization
- C. Administrative delegation
- D. Direct democracy
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Democratic decentralization
Local self-government is a key aspect of democratic decentralization, ensuring governance at the grassroots level. In India, local self-government refers to governing bodies operating below the state level, forming the third tier of governance in the federal structure. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provide constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural) and Urban Local Bodies (urban), respectively. Additionally, each state enacts its own legislation to regulate local governance. Democratic decentralization is the foundation of local self-government, emphasizing: - Democracy: Local citizens actively participate in governance through elected representatives, ensuring direct engagement in decision-making. - Decentralization: Authority and responsibilities are transferred from central and state governments to local bodies, empowering communities to address region-specific issues and enhance efficient governance. Thus, local self-government in India strengthens grassroots democracy, fosters self-reliance, and ensures better service delivery to the people.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations