How has the BCCI resisted RTI scrutiny?

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.

Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._

A constitutional government is, by definition, a limited government. In a constitutional government, the powers of the government are restricted by a constitution. This document sets out the rules, principles, and framework within which the government must operate. One of the core features of a constitutional government is the separation of powers. This principle divides the governmental authority into distinct branches (legislative, executive, and judiciary) to ensure that no single branch gains too much power. It also guarantees fundamental rights, ensuring government actions remain within a legal framework. Thus, a constitutional government operates under checks and balances, preventing absolute power and upholding the rule of law.

Equality means that everyone has the same rights and opportunities, ensuring a fair and just society. Privileges: They are the opposite of equality because they represent unearned advantages enjoyed by a select few, contradicting the principle that all individuals should have the same rights and opportunities. Restraints: Some restrictions are necessary to maintain fairness, protect rights, and prevent harm (e.g., laws against discrimination). These restraints can coexist with equality rather than opposing it. Competition: A society can be both competitive and equal if opportunities are fairly distributed. Competition can drive innovation and progress, but it does not inherently contradict equality. Ideology: The impact of ideology on equality depends on its nature. Some ideologies promote social justice and equal rights, while others reinforce inequalities. However, ideology itself is not inherently opposed to equality.

* The legislation described would violate Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. * Article 14 guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. This means that laws must be applied fairly and consistently, and everyone should be treated equally under the law. * Legislation that gives unchecked power to the executive or administration to apply the law violates this principle. Option B is incorrect. Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion. Option C is incorrect. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Option D is incorrect. Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

❌ Pair I: The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
* Incorrect. It functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry. ❌ Pair II: The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries
* Incorrect. The Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. ❌ Pair III: National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of MSME
* Incorrect. NCTI is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.

Each of these constitutional provisions is accurately linked to its correct part within the Constitution of India. ✅ Pair I: Directive Principles of State Policy – Correct
* Article 50 mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. ✅ Pair II: Fundamental Duties – Correct
* Article 51A(f) states that citizens must value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. ✅ Pair III: Fundamental Rights – Correct
* Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous work such as factories or mines.