River Interlinking Projects
River interlinking projects aim to redistribute water from surplus to deficit basins to address water scarcity and enhance irrigation, but face significant c...
The article reports on former Telangana Irrigation Minister T. Harish Rao's accusation against Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy for allegedly compromising Telangana's water share in the Krishna and Godavari rivers. Rao demanded transparency regarding decisions made at a recent three-state meeting (Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana) concerning water allocations, pending irrigation project approvals, and proposed river-linking plans. He expressed concern over projects by Karnataka (Naveli Reservoir) and Andhra Pradesh (Gundrevula project) potentially affecting inflows into Srisailam reservoir and Telangana's irrigation schemes. The article highlights the ongoing inter-state water disputes and the political dynamics surrounding water resource management.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
River interlinking projects aim to redistribute water from surplus to deficit basins to address water scarcity and enhance irrigation, but face significant c...
Inter-State Water Disputes are constitutional challenges in India's federal structure, primarily concerning river water sharing, governed by Article 262 and ...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
Option A is correct. In a federal system, power is distributed between the central government and the states. There can be disputes about the division of power or interpretation of the Constitution.
An independent judiciary acts as an impartial umpire to settle these disputes and uphold the Constitution. It ensures that both the central government and the states function within their constitutional boundaries.The other options, while relevant to Indian polity, are not exclusive to federal systems Option B is incorrect. The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units is a common feature in both federal and some unitary states with devolved power. Option C is incorrect. The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties is not a defining characteristic of federalism. Political party affiliation doesn't necessarily determine the federal structure. Option D is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights being enforceable by Courts of Law, while essential for a democracy, this feature exists even in some non-federal states.
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President of India, not the Governor of a State, has the power to specify a community as a Scheduled Tribe (ST) for a particular state or Union Territory. This is done through a notification in the Official Gazette, after consultation with the concerned State government. Statement 2 is correct: The specification of Scheduled Tribes is not uniform across the country. A community recognized as an ST in one State may not be recognized as such in another State. This is because the criteria for scheduling are based on social, educational, and economic backwardness, which can vary across regions.
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
Inter-State quarantine falls under the purview of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This is because matters of inter-state significance, especially those related to health and disease control, are best handled by the central government to ensure uniformity and prevent the spread of diseases across state borders. _Let's examine why the other options are incorrect:_ * Option A is incorrect: Inter-State trade and commerce is explicitly mentioned in the Union List (List I), giving the central government the power to regulate commerce that transcends state boundaries. * Option B is incorrect While individual states have some powers related to internal migration, Inter state migration is mentioned in the Union List. * Option D is incorrect Corporation tax, levied on the net income of companies, is a subject under the Union List. However, the Constitution allows for the sharing of corporation tax revenue with states.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
Indian federalism is characterized by key features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and the States, and unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha, all of which are enshrined in the Indian Constitution. However, unlike classical federations like the United States, Indian federalism is not the outcome of an agreement among the federating units. The Indian Constitution, which lays down the framework for India's federal structure, was not created through an agreement among the federating units but was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India.
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions. ✅ I. Inter-State Council – Correct
* Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination. ❌ II. National Security Council – Incorrect
* Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution. ❌ III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect
* Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation. Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down. Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356. Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Which of the above-given statements is correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory. The Assembly may either be dissolved (leading to fresh elections) or kept under suspension (placing it in a state of dormancy until further decisions are made). Statement 2 is incorrect: When President’s Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed, as the state government is suspended and the Governor takes over the executive powers on behalf of the President. Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of local bodies is not a direct consequence of President’s Rule. Since municipalities and panchayats function independently under the State List (as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments), their existence remains unaffected unless the state government had already initiated their dissolution through legal provisions. Thus, while the removal of the Council of Ministers is automatic, the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is conditional, and local bodies remain largely unaffected. Hence, the correct answer is option (B) 1 and 3 only.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has to address the challenges faced by children in the digital era. Examine the existing policies and suggest measures the Commission can initiate to tackle the issue.
Discuss the distribution and density of population in the Ganga River Basin with special reference to land, soil and water resources.
"In contemporary development models, decision-making and problem-solving responsibilities are not located close to the source of information and execution defeating the objectives of development." Critically evaluate.
How can Artificial Intelligence (AI) and drones be effectively used along with GIS and RS techniques in locational and areal planning?
Give a geographical explanation of the distribution of off-shore oil reserves of the world. How are they different from the on-shore occurrences of oil reserves?
Examine the evolving pattern of Centre-State financial relations in the context of planned development in India. How far have the recent reforms impacted the fiscal federalism in India?
The article explicitly states the dispute involves 'Krishna and Godavari waters' and a 'three-State — Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana — meeting'.
The article states, 'Karnataka was proceeding with the proposed 35 tmc Naveli Reservoir upstream of RDS, while Andhra Pradesh was planning the 20 tmc Gundrevula project downstream. 'Together, these projects could impound around 55 tmc of water, affecting inflows into the Srisailam reservoir and jeopardising irrigation schemes...''
The article begins by stating that Harish Rao 'accused Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy of compromising Telangana’s rightful share of Krishna and Godavari waters for political interests and demanded that the latter disclose the decisions taken at the recent three-State... meeting'.
Outline constitutional provisions (Article 262), Inter-State Water Disputes Act, and the role of tribunals. Then, discuss challenges like political interference, delays, data issues, and lack of consensus, referencing the article's context.
Explain the significance of transparency and accountability in building trust and ensuring equitable resource distribution. Relate to the article's mention of 'closed-door meeting' and demand for 'disclosure.' Suggest measures like public access to meeting minutes, data sharing, stakeholder consultation, and independent oversight.