Cockroach Janta Party protests | Collection of The Hindu’s ground reports

* Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Union Finance Minister does present the Annual Financial Statement in Parliament, it is not done 'on behalf of the Prime Minister', but the President of India. As Article 112 reads The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part, referred to as the annual financial statement. * Statement 2 is correct: At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India, as per Article 113 of the Constitution. _Note: Though, UPSC has officially given 'C' as the correct answer but according to us correct answer should be 'B'._

* Article 109 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the special procedure for Money Bills. (Correct) * Article 109(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). (Correct) *  Article 109(5) states that the Rajya Sabha can't reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. (Correct) * The Lok Sabha has the ultimate power regarding Money Bills. It is not bound to accept any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. (Incorrect) Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for amending the Constitution. It grants Parliament the authority to amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition * Parliament can add new provisions or articles to the Constitution that were not originally included. This allows the Constitution to evolve by incorporating new concepts or requirements. * Example: The 93rd Amendment Act, 2005 added Article 15(5), which allows for reservations in educational institutions for backward classes. 2. Variation * Parliament has the power to modify or alter existing provisions of the Constitution. This means changes can be made to existing articles without removing them entirely. * Example: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 altered several provisions, including changes to the Preamble and the relationship between the President and Parliament. 3. Repeal * Parliament can also repeal provisions of the Constitution, effectively removing them. This allows for the removal of outdated or irrelevant provisions. * Example: The 26th Amendment Act, 1971 abolished the privy purse that was being paid to former rulers of princely states. _Therefore, the correct answer is All of the above (1, 2, and 3)._

(A) is incorrect: Direct election of the lower house is a feature of Representative Democracy. Many Presidential systems (such as the USA) also have directly elected legislatures; therefore, this is not the distinguishing factor of a Parliamentary system. (B) is incorrect: The authority to amend the Constitution is a matter of Constitutional Sovereignty. This power exists in various forms of government, including both Parliamentary and Presidential models. (C) is incorrect: The fact that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent house is a Federal feature intended to maintain the representation of the States. It does not define the relationship between the Executive and the Legislature. (D) is correct: As per Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This "Collective Responsibility" is the bedrock of the Parliamentary form of government, as the executive's survival depends on the support of the legislature.

Option A is correct. A Bill shall be deemed a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which defines the scope of a Money Bill. Option B is correct. A Money Bill includes provisions regarding the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(c) of the Constitution, a Money Bill may contain provisions related to the custody, withdrawal, and audit of funds from these financial accounts. Option C is incorrect. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is under the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditures, and its withdrawal is not governed by a Money Bill. Instead, Article 267(1) of the Constitution provides for its use, and the withdrawal of money from this fund is later regularized through an Appropriation Bill. Option D is correct. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(d), provisions regarding government borrowing, the issuance of guarantees, and financial obligations of the Government of India fall within the scope of a Money Bill. Thus, statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct, while statement (c) is incorrect.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer, not an oral answer. The written reply is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the concerned Minister. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Starred questions (distinguished by an asterisk mark) are those to which a Member desires an oral answer on the floor of the House, not a written answer. Statement 3 is Correct: Because the answer to an unstarred question is provided in writing rather than debated orally, no supplementary (follow-up) questions can be asked on it. Supplementary questions can only be asked following the oral reply to a starred question or a short notice question. Therefore, there is only one correct statement.

Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session. So, the Constitution provides for the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament, i.e. it cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. Therefore the constitution prescribes a maximum gap but there is no minimum gap. So, statement 1 and 3 are correct, and 2 is not correct. Therefore the correct answer is (c).

✅ Statement I: Correct
The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94). ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality. ✅ Statement III: Correct
The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94). Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.

1. Finance Commission: Deals with the distribution of tax revenue between the central government and states, not overall national planning. 2. National Development Council (NDC): This was the apex body for planning at the national level. It is used to formulate and review India's five-year plans. 3. Union Ministry of Rural Development: Implements specific development schemes related to rural areas, not national-level planning. 4. Union Ministry of Urban Development: Implements specific development schemes related to urban areas, not national-level planning. 5. Parliament: While not directly involved in day-to-day planning, the Parliament is used to approve the five-year plans formulated by the NDC. Additionally, Members of Parliament (MPs) can utilize funds allocated for their constituencies through MPLADS (Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme), which contributes to local-level planning.

Article 19(1)(b) of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to assemble peacefully and without arms. However, Article 19(3) allows the state to impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order. The Supreme Court has affirmed that the right to protest is a fundamental right but not an absolute one, and it must be exercised peacefully and without causing public nuisance or obstruction.

Article 75(2) states that Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, and Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). While individual ministers are accountable for their departments, their removal is typically on the advice of the Prime Minister. A no-confidence motion, if passed, leads to the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister. Public protests are a means of expressing dissent and exerting political pressure, but the formal mechanism for removal lies within the executive and legislative framework.

For the National Capital Territory of Delhi, 'Police' and 'Public Order' fall under the purview of the Central Government, not the elected Delhi government. The Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi, as the representative of the President, exercises control over these subjects. The Delhi Police functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India, through the LG.