The article details the Indian government's efforts to enhance online safety for children, particularly against Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM) and harmful AI-generated content like deepfakes. It highlights the stringent framework established by the Information Technology Act, 2000, and the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021. Recent amendments to the IT Rules mandate stricter obligations for social media intermediaries, including reduced timelines for content removal, clear labeling and traceable metadata for AI-generated content, and proactive measures against unlawful material. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is also involved, and intermediaries face loss of liability exemption under Section 79 of the IT Act if they fail to comply. The government has issued advisories and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to guide platforms and law enforcement.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
The IT Rules, 2021, under the IT Act, mandate due diligence for digital intermediaries, setting strict timelines for content removal, establishing grievance ...
Government policies, primarily through the IT Act and IT Rules, aim to ensure a safe and accountable internet by imposing due diligence and content moderatio...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below :
* Statement 1: Correct: The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha was initially an ad-hoc committee formed in 1952. It became a standing committee in 1997. * Statement 2: Incorrect: Any person can make a complaint to the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha against a Member of Parliament for unethical conduct. It doesn't necessarily have to be another Member of Parliament. * Statement 3: Correct: The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha cannot take up any matter that is sub-judice, meaning a matter that is currently under consideration by a court or other judicial authority. _Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct._
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cybersecurity incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
In India, section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the IT Act) gives the Central Government the power to appoint an agency of the government to be called the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team. Further, it is legally mandatory for service providers, data centres and body corporates to report on cybersecurity incidents as outlined in the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013, which were notified under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government/including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four fixed ranks. There are broadly two categories based on parliamentary convention - Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State (with or without independent charge). The number of ranks can vary based on the specific structure chosen by the government. Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Amendment to the Constitution limits the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Committee consists of 30 members, out of which 20 are elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 are elected by the Rajya Sabha, not the other way around. Statement 3 is Incorrect: A Minister is strictly ineligible to be elected as a member of this Committee. If a member is appointed as a Minister after their election, they immediately cease to be a member of the Committee. There is no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment or any other minister. Statement 4 is Incorrect: The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year, not two years. It is reconstituted annually like other major standing parliamentary committees (e.g., Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee). Since all the statements are incorrect, there is no correct statement. Therefore, the correct option is D.
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. Rather, Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion. Statement 2 is correct: A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am, which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion, and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion of the motion.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void. * Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill. * Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below :
* Article 109 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the special procedure for Money Bills. (Correct) * Article 109(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). (Correct) * Article 109(5) states that the Rajya Sabha can't reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. (Correct) * The Lok Sabha has the ultimate power regarding Money Bills. It is not bound to accept any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. (Incorrect) Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India. Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given ' below:
* Statement 1 is incorrect: If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory. * Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 75 of the Indian constitution, the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha. * Statement 3 is incorrect: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is not correct: The Government had launched a scheme viz Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme of Government of India, 1993. As per the scheme, Temporary status would be conferred on all casual labourers who were in employment and who have rendered a continuous service of at least one year, which means that they must have been engaged for at least 240 days (206 days in case of offices observing 5 days week). Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has decreed that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits as stipulated in the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. The Court's ruling stemmed from its interpretation of Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, wherein the definition of an "employee" encompasses a broad scope, including any individual engaged directly or indirectly in connection with an establishment's work and receiving wages. A bench of the Supreme Court affirmed this viewpoint. Statement 3 is correct: The government has the authority to specify through a notification that an establishment or industry is obligated to disburse wages exclusively via its bank account.
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has to address the challenges faced by children in the digital era. Examine the existing policies and suggest measures the Commission can initiate to tackle the issue.
"In contemporary development models, decision-making and problem-solving responsibilities are not located close to the source of information and execution defeating the objectives of development." Critically evaluate.
What are environmental pressure groups? Discuss their role in raising awareness, influencing policies and advocating for environmental protection in India.
Examine the evolving pattern of Centre-State financial relations in the context of planned development in India. How far have the recent reforms impacted the fiscal federalism in India?
Discuss the evolution of collegium system in India. Critically examine the advantages and disadvantages of the system of appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India and that of the USA.
Indian Constitution has conferred the amending power on the ordinary legislative institutions with a few procedural hurdles. In view of this statement, examine the procedural and substantive limitations on the amending power of the Parliament to change the Constitution.
MCQs drawn from today's published current affairs.
The article states: 'The intermediary, within two hours from the receipt of a complaint made by an individual or any person on behalf, in relation to any content which involves full / partial nudity, exposing the private area and artificially morphed images of an individual should take all reasonable and practicable measures to remove or disable access to such content'.
Statement 1 is correct: The IT Rules mandate SSMIs to deploy appropriate technical measures, including automated tools, to proactively identify CSAM. Statement 2 is correct: The article explicitly states that intermediaries lose their Section 79 exemption if they fail to observe legal obligations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article mentions that NCPCR has issued notices to concerned social media platforms regarding CSAM, indicating its involvement.
Statement 1 is correct: The amendments require 'clear labelling and traceable metadata for permissible AI-generated content'. Statement 2 is correct: Intermediaries are 'obligated to deploy reasonable and appropriate technical measures... to not allow any user to create, generate... any synthetically generated information that violates any law'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The amendments 'strengthens user accountability' and platform due diligence.
Approach: Introduce the government's objective for online safety. Detail the provisions of the IT Act and IT Rules, highlighting recent amendments concerning CSAM and AI-generated content. Discuss the strengths of the framework and conclude with challenges in its effective implementation, such as technological complexities, balancing freedom of speech, and enforcement issues.
Approach: Begin by outlining the threat posed by AI-generated content. Explain the key provisions of the amended IT Rules, focusing on the requirement for clear labeling and traceable metadata, proactive measures by intermediaries using automated tools, strengthened user accountability, and reduced timelines for content removal. Conclude with the potential impact of these measures.