Digital Governance and Cyber Security Framework in India
India's digital governance is anchored by the IT Act and Rules, focusing on intermediary accountability, content moderation, and extensive public awareness c...
The government is actively strengthening safeguards against digital addiction and ensuring a safe, trusted, and accountable internet. This involves a robust legal framework, including the IT Act 2000, IT Rules 2021, and the Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023, which mandate intermediary due diligence, content removal, and child data protection. The upcoming Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act 2025 aims to tackle digital addiction. Extensive awareness campaigns, guidelines (like PRAGYATA), and curriculum integration by bodies like CERT-In, Ministry of Education, CBSE, and NCERT are also underway to promote cyber hygiene and address digital addiction, recognized as a public health challenge.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
India's digital governance is anchored by the IT Act and Rules, focusing on intermediary accountability, content moderation, and extensive public awareness c...
The DPDP Act, 2023, is India's primary law for digital personal data protection, emphasizing consent, data principal rights, and specific safeguards for chil...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cybersecurity incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
In India, section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the IT Act) gives the Central Government the power to appoint an agency of the government to be called the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team. Further, it is legally mandatory for service providers, data centres and body corporates to report on cybersecurity incidents as outlined in the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013, which were notified under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Committee consists of 30 members, out of which 20 are elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 are elected by the Rajya Sabha, not the other way around. Statement 3 is Incorrect: A Minister is strictly ineligible to be elected as a member of this Committee. If a member is appointed as a Minister after their election, they immediately cease to be a member of the Committee. There is no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment or any other minister. Statement 4 is Incorrect: The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year, not two years. It is reconstituted annually like other major standing parliamentary committees (e.g., Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee). Since all the statements are incorrect, there is no correct statement. Therefore, the correct option is D.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void. * Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill. * Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below :
* Statement 1: Correct: The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha was initially an ad-hoc committee formed in 1952. It became a standing committee in 1997. * Statement 2: Incorrect: Any person can make a complaint to the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha against a Member of Parliament for unethical conduct. It doesn't necessarily have to be another Member of Parliament. * Statement 3: Correct: The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha cannot take up any matter that is sub-judice, meaning a matter that is currently under consideration by a court or other judicial authority. _Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct._
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
* Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no specific information available about which Lok Sabha session the provisions will be implemented. * Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. * Statement 3 is also correct: In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, the Bill sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below :
* Article 109 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the special procedure for Money Bills. (Correct) * Article 109(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). (Correct) * Article 109(5) states that the Rajya Sabha can't reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. (Correct) * The Lok Sabha has the ultimate power regarding Money Bills. It is not bound to accept any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. (Incorrect) Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India. Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. Rather, Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion. Statement 2 is correct: A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am, which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion, and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion of the motion.
With reference to India, Consider the following pairs:
Action : The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
* Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits a person from using or wearing, without lawful authority, any naval, military, air force, police, or other official uniform, or any uniform so nearly resembling the same as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform * Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is under The Official Secrets Act, 1923, that no person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead, or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of 21 \[the Armed Forces of the Union\] engaged on guard, sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place. * Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Arms Act Amendment of 2019 adds news offenses such as forcefully taking a firearm from police or armed forces and using firearms in a celebratory gunfire which endangers human life or the personal safety of others.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: While a Finance Bill (Category I under Art 117) is introduced only in the Lok Sabha (similar to a Money Bill), it is passed according to the ordinary legislative procedure. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it. Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill (Article 110) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. It can only make recommendations which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. Statement 3 is incorrect: While a Joint Sitting is not provided for Money Bills, it is available for Finance Bills. However, it is not "necessary" (mandatory) to hold one. Under Article 108, the President "may" summon a Joint Sitting to resolve the deadlock, but is not obliged to do so; the bill could simply be allowed to lapse.
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
Does tribal development in India centre around two axes, those of displacement and of rehabilitation? Give your opinion.
Achieving sustainable growth with emphasis on environmental protection could come into conflict with poor people’s needs in a country like India – Comment.
How do you account for the growing fast food industries given that there are increased health concerns in modern society? Illustrate your answer with the Indian experience.
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has to address the challenges faced by children in the digital era. Examine the existing policies and suggest measures the Commission can initiate to tackle the issue.
Discuss the distribution and density of population in the Ganga River Basin with special reference to land, soil and water resources.
How does smart city in India address the issues of urban poverty and distributive justice?
MCQs drawn from today's published current affairs.
The article explicitly states that the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (DPDP Act) provides a legal framework for safeguarding children’s privacy online, mandating parental consent for processing children’s personal data and prohibiting practices such as tracking, behavioural monitoring, or targeted advertising towards children.
The article mentions that 'The Ministry of Education issued the PRAGYATA Guidelines on Digital Education in July 2020, which provide a framework for safe and effective online learning, including promotion of students’ well-being and responsible use of social media and electronic devices.'
The article states, 'Recent amendments to IT Rules require social media platforms and other intermediaries to remove unlawful content within three hours of the receipt of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction or reasoned intimation by the Appropriate Government or its agency.'
Approach: Introduce the government's vision. Elaborate on the legal framework, regulatory measures, and awareness campaigns as distinct pillars of this approach, concluding with challenges or future outlook.
Approach: Begin by defining digital addiction and its impacts as highlighted in the article. Then, detail the legal and educational initiatives, followed by a critical assessment of their potential effectiveness and limitations.