INCLUSION OF GOR BOLI IN THE EIGHTH SCHEDULE

* The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 amended the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to include Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages. * These languages were added to grant official recognition and promote their cultural and linguistic development. * Konkani is primarily spoken in Goa, Manipuri in Manipur, and Nepali in Sikkim and Darjeeling (West Bengal). * Maithili, however, was added later through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, along with Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali.

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. It aims to safeguard the rights, culture, and land of tribal communities while preventing their exploitation. Under this Schedule, the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas has special powers, including the authority to: - Declare any law related to the transfer of tribal land as null and void if it is found to violate the interests of the tribal population. - Prohibit or regulate the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring that tribal communities retain control over their ancestral land and resources. These provisions act as a protective mechanism, preventing tribal communities from being forced or manipulated into selling their land for activities like mining, industries, or large-scale projects without adequate safeguards.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four. Statement 2 is Correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified regions (including Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh) are exempt from paying income tax on income generated from sources within those areas, as well as on dividends or interest on securities. Statement 3 is Correct: Article 243D of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Furthermore, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, there are exactly two correct statements, which include Statement 2. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

* Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. - This statement is correct. Part IXA of the Indian Constitution (added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992) deals with Municipalities and provides for their powers and functions. * Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. - This statement is correct. Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution (Articles 352 to 360) deals with 'Emergency Provisions' outlining situations like national emergency, state emergency, and financial emergency. * Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution - This statement is correct. Part XX of the Indian Constitution contains only Article 368, which deals with the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for it. _Therefore, all three statements are correct._

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Article 393 of the Constitution explicitly specifies its short title. It states verbatim, "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 395 of the Constitution contains a specific provision repealing foundational colonial-era laws. It explicitly states that the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act (excluding the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949), are repealed. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Article 394 of the Constitution explicitly mentions its commencement date. It lists specific articles (such as those related to citizenship and elections) that came into force immediately upon adoption, and then states that the remaining provisions "shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution." Since all three statements are incorrect, there is no correct statement. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there is no correct statement.

* The correct answer is D. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts. * The Preamble of the Indian Constitution sets out the guiding principles and objectives of the document. While it is an integral part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case), it cannot be directly enforced in a court of law. * The Supreme Court of India has clarified that the Preamble can be used to interpret ambiguous provisions within the Constitution, but cannot be used to strike down laws as unconstitutional on its own. It serves as a guiding light for understanding the spirit and intent of the Constitution.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by Parliament. Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights. Hence, neither of the statements is correct.

Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.

❌ Statement I: Incorrect
The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. Therefore, neither statement is correct.

The Charter Act of 1813 was a significant legislation: - Company’s rule and trade monopoly in India was extended to another 20 years. Monopoly was ended except for the trade in tea and with China.
- This asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British India by defining the constitutional position of the British in India. - This act also empowered the local governments to impose taxes on the persons subject to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. - The European British subjects were also strengthened in India over the power of the provincial governments and courts.
- Financial provision was made to encourage a revival in Indian literature and for the promotion of science.
- This act also envisages that missionaries can go and spread the Christianity in India.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states, 'However, there are no fixed criteria for consideration of any language for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.' Statement 2 is correct. The article mentions, 'The attempts to fix such criteria through Pahwa and Sitakant Mohapatra Committees have remained inconclusive.' Statement 3 is incorrect. The article states that there have been demands for the *inclusion* of 'Gor Boli' in the Eighth Schedule, not that it is already included or that there are demands for its removal.

The article explicitly mentions that Sahitya Akademi has instituted a Language Development Board (Statement 1), confers Bhasha Samman on scholars for contributions to unrecognized languages including tribal languages (Statement 2), and established the North-East Centre for Oral Literature (NECOL) (Statement 3). Statement 4, organizing the 'Festival of India' abroad, is not mentioned in the provided article as an initiative by Sahitya Akademi for this specific purpose.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution, not exclusively the official languages of the Union (which are Hindi in Devanagari script and English). Statement 2 is incorrect. Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule primarily signifies recognition for development and promotion by the government, but it does not automatically confer 'official status at the national level' for all purposes. Statement 3 is correct. The article states, 'As the evolution of dialects and languages is a dynamic process, influenced by socio-cultural, economic and political developments, it is difficult to fix any criterion for languages for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.'