New trade pact a win-win for India and U.K.

The Digital Single Market Strategy refers to an initiative by the European Union (EU) that aims to create a unified digital market across all member states. Overall, the Digital Single Market Strategy aims to stimulate growth in the European digital economy by fostering innovation, competition, and consumer confidence in the online marketplace.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: While China and Russia were not part of the TPP negotiations, it wasn't solely focused on Pacific Rim countries. Other economies like Vietnam and Singapore were part of the TPP despite not exactly being on the Pacific Rim. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The TPP was a proposed trade agreement, not a strategic alliance for maritime security. It aimed to reduce trade barriers and promote economic integration among member countries. The TPP negotiations were concluded in 2015, but the agreement was never ratified by all the signatories. The United States withdrew from the TPP in 2017, effectively ending the initiative in its original form. However, some member countries pursued alternative trade agreements based on the TPP framework. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Foreign e-commerce companies cannot directly sell their own goods through an inventory-based model in India. This is to ensure a level playing field for domestic sellers and protect small retailers. Marketplace model allows these companies to operate as online marketplaces, providing a platform for other sellers to list and sell their products. India amended its FDI policy in e-commerce marketplaces in 2018 to classify any vendor accounting for more than 25% of the platform’s total sales as controlled by the marketplace operator. So, no seller must exceed 25 per cent of the total business on any foreign e-commerce platform. So, statement 2 is correct. Note: UPSC officially give D as correct answer but as per us the correct answer should be B

* Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047. * Statement II is correct: The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers. Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI scheme.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) typically involves a long-term interest and control in a company. However, the definition includes specific instruments and thresholds. Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) and Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) are instruments used by Indian companies to raise capital abroad. Since these are essentially precursors to equity (convertible to shares) or represent underlying shares, they are treated as part of the FDI policy framework and statistics under the "Foreign Investment" category. Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)—now largely subsumed under Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)—is generally considered short-term. However, with certain conditions, it becomes FDI. According to international standards and the Arvind Mayaram Committee recommendations adopted by India, if an FPI holds a stake of 10% or more in a company, it is reclassified and treated as FDI. Statement 4 is incorrect: Non-Resident External (NRE) deposits are simply bank accounts held by NRIs in India. These are classified as External Debt (if repatriable) or Banking Capital, not foreign investment in a productive enterprise.

Option A is incorrect. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) typically involves investment in unlisted companies or companies that involve a direct ownership stake, not just investments through capital instruments in listed companies. Option B is correct. FDI is considered a non-debt creating capital flow because it involves equity investments that do not require repayment, unlike loans or debt instruments. This type of investment brings in long-term capital and management expertise, which helps in the development of industries in the host country. Option C is incorrect. FDI does not involve debt-servicing. Unlike loans or bonds, FDI involves ownership stakes, and thus, there is no obligation to pay interest or principal repayments. Option D is incorrect. The investment in Government securities by foreign institutional investors (FIIs) is considered foreign portfolio investment (FPI), not FDI. FDI focuses on acquiring a substantial ownership stake in a company, whereas FPI involves short-term investments in financial assets. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

* The country's vegetable oil imports for the first six months of the oil year during November 2018 to April 2019 stood at 75,41,689 tonne, up about 3% from 73,18,295 tonne reported in the same period last year. * Vegetable oils account for the highest import in terms of value in the last five years. India relies on imports for 70 percent of its edible oil consumption.

India overtook Thailand as the world's largest riceexporter in 2015, since then India is held its position while China is the largest producer of rice. Below are the few countries that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice in 2018.
1) India US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)
2) Thailand $5.6 billion (22.7%)
3) Vietnam $2.2 billion (9%)

The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is negotiated between India and the European Union (EU).

Tight monetary policy is an action taken by a central bank, such as the Federal Reserve, to curb overheated economic growth. Central banks employ tight monetary policy when an economy is experiencing rapid acceleration or when inflation, which pertains to overall prices, is escalating too swiftly. Statement 1 is correct. A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve means higher interest rates in the US. This attracts global investors to shift their capital towards US assets for better returns. As a result, there can be capital flight from emerging markets like India to the US. Statement 2 is correct. When capital flows out, the domestic currency tends to depreciate, and global interest rates rise. Firms that have borrowed in foreign currencies through External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) will now face higher repayment costs in rupee terms. Thus, their cost of servicing these loans increases, raising their overall financial burden. Statement 3 is incorrect. Devaluation of the domestic currency actually increases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Since these loans are denominated in foreign currency (like USD), a weaker rupee means firms have to pay more in rupees to repay the same amount of foreign debt. Therefore, devaluation heightens, not reduces, currency risk. NOTE: The given question was dropped by UPSC from the Official Answer Key.

The article explicitly states, 'The headline gain for India is the zero-duty access secured for 99% of Indian exports to the U.K.'

The article states, 'This is expected to boost labour-intensive sectors such as textiles, leather, footwear, marine products, and gems and jewellery... It will also benefit high-value sectors such as engineering goods and chemicals.' Agriculture and Dairy have retained safeguards, and Electric Vehicles are subject to tariff-rate quotas, not immediate zero-duty access for all.

The article mentions, 'Modern provisions on digital trade, labour, gender, intellectual property, and innovation, make the agreement future-ready...'