Why are pellet guns used as a ‘non-lethal’ crowd-control measure? | Explained

An Ordinance is a temporary law issued by the President (Article 123) or Governor (Article 213) when the legislature is not in session. It holds the same force as a regular law, but must adhere to constitutional limits. ✅ Statement I: Correct
* An Ordinance can amend any Central Act, just like a Parliamentary law, subject to constitutional provisions. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
* Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights as per Article 13(2) of the Constitution. Any such provision is void. ✅ Statement III: Correct
* Ordinances can be given retrospective effect, i.e., they can be enforced from a past date.

Statement I is correct: President’s pardoning power can be subjected to limited judicial review, especially on grounds like mala fides, irrelevant considerations, or arbitrariness (as held in Kehar Singh, Epuru Sudhakar cases). Statement II is incorrect: President cannot act independently; the power must be exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74.

Statement 1 is correct: The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory. The Assembly may either be dissolved (leading to fresh elections) or kept under suspension (placing it in a state of dormancy until further decisions are made). Statement 2 is incorrect: When President’s Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed, as the state government is suspended and the Governor takes over the executive powers on behalf of the President. Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of local bodies is not a direct consequence of President’s Rule. Since municipalities and panchayats function independently under the State List (as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments), their existence remains unaffected unless the state government had already initiated their dissolution through legal provisions. Thus, while the removal of the Council of Ministers is automatic, the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is conditional, and local bodies remain largely unaffected. Hence, the correct answer is option (B) 1 and 3 only.

The Coal Controller's Organisation (CCO) is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Coal, having its headquarters at Kolkata and field offices at Dhanbad, Ranchi, Bilaspur, Nagpur, Sambalpur, Kothagudem and Asansol. It collects and maintains coal production data of all private and public sector coal mines in the country. The information is collected every month. Statement 1 is correct. Under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority concerning coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted with the responsibility of carrying out the Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India. Statement 2 is correct. It is entrusted with the task of monitoring captive mines. Work such as permission for the opening and reopening of coal mines has been entrusted to the CCO. Statement 3 is correct. Under the Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- the Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government's Notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing land and to furnish his reports to the Central Govt. Statement 4 is incorrect. Ensuring that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time is not the function of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO).

At the national level, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Option B is the correct answer. A parliamentary system of government is one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature. This responsibility means that the executive stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The moment the confidence is lost, it can be removed by Parliament by passing the no-confidence motion. This is the same feature which hampers the stability of the parliamentary system. Options A and C are incorrect. Parliamentary system functions irrespective of whether all parties have representation. The government is not directly elected by the people but indirectly through their representative in Parliament. Therefore, the instrument to remove the government through public vote is not available in the parliamentary system; this is a feature found in direct democracies. Option D is incorrect. It goes against the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy which requires an executive responsible to the legislature. Therefore the correct answer is B.

❌ Statement I: Incorrect
*The President of India is NOT a member of the Jury.* ✅ Statement II: Correct
*The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the Jury.* ✅ Statement III: Correct
*The Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the CJI) is a Jury member.* ✅ Statement IV: Correct
*The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of largest opposition party) is a Jury member.* Correct Answer: Statements II, III, and IV are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President has the authority to prorogue the Houses, or either House of Parliament, from time to time. The termination of a session of the House by an order from the President under this provision is referred to as 'prorogation.' The President exercises this power of prorogation only upon the recommendation of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet, i.e., the Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is correct. Typically, prorogation follows adjournment sine die, but technically, the President can prorogue a House even while it is in session. Statement 3 is correct. The President usually dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances such as a vote of no confidence or other political crises.

Pair 1 is incorrect: A Brigadier (Army) is equivalent to an Air Commodore (Air Force) and a Commodore (Navy). A Commander in the Navy is actually two ranks junior to a Brigadier. Pair 2 is incorrect: A Major General (Army) is equivalent to an Air Vice Marshal (Air Force) and a Rear Admiral (Navy). A Vice Admiral is a rank higher (equivalent to a Lieutenant General). Pair 3 is correct: A Major (Army) is equivalent to a Squadron Leader (Air Force) and a Lieutenant Commander (Navy). Pair 4 is incorrect: A Lieutenant Colonel (Army) is equivalent to a Wing Commander (Air Force) and a Commander (Navy). A Group Captain and Captain (Navy) are equivalent to a Colonel in the Army. The correct equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces are: | Indian Army | Indian Navy | Indian Air Force |
| --------------- | ---------------------- | -------------------------- |
| Field Marshal | Admiral of the fleet | Marshal of the Air Force |
| General | Admiral | Air Chief Marshal |
| Lt. General | Vice Admiral | Air Marshal |
| Major General | Rear Admiral | Air Vice Marshal |
| Brigadier | Commodore | Air Commodore |
| Colonel | Captain | Group Captain |
| Lt. Colonel | Commander | Wing Commander |
| Major | Lt. Commander | Squadron Leader |
| Captain | Lieutenant | Flight Lieutenant |
| Lieutenant | Sub Lieutenant | Flying Officer | Thus only pair 3 is correctly matched, hence option D is the correct answer

Statement 1 is not correct: The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, not parliament. Statement 2 is correct: The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Statement 1 is correct as pellet guns were first deployed in Jammu and Kashmir in 2010. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that the then Congress-led government at the Centre deployed them. Statement 3 is correct as they were introduced as a 'non-lethal' measure to avoid civilian fatalities.

Statement 1 is correct as pellet guns are manufactured at the Ordinance Factory, Ishapore. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions 'plastic bullets' were introduced in 2017. Statement 3 is correct as the plastic bullets were tested at the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL) in Chandigarh.

Statement 1 is correct as pellet guns and shock batons are part of the gear of the Rapid Action Force (RAF). Statement 2 is incorrect; the MHA prescribed QRs for shock batons in 2021, not 2019. Statement 3 is correct as pellet guns were last known to be used during the 2024 farmers' protests and 2023 Manipur protests.