Internal Stratification and Heterogeneity within Scheduled Castes
Explores how SCs are internally divided by sub-caste, religion, and socio-economic status, leading to varied outcomes and challenges for unified action and e...
The article analyzes the political marginalization of the Scheduled Caste (SC) community in Punjab, despite constituting the highest percentage of the state's population (32%). It highlights that internal divisions among the 39 different SC castes, further split by religions and sects (Deras) like Ravidassias, Ad-Dharmi, Balmikis, and Mazhabis, prevent them from forming a unified political force. This fragmentation, coupled with mainstream political parties' focus on 'appeasement politics' rather than genuine empowerment through constitutional protections and reservation laws, has limited their political influence. The article notes the historical dominance of Jat Sikhs in Punjab politics and the brief tenure of Charanjit Singh Channi as the only Dalit Chief Minister since 1977. With the 2027 Assembly elections approaching, political leaders, including the Prime Minister and Chief Minister, are actively courting Dera followers, underscoring the significance of Dalit voters.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
Explores how SCs are internally divided by sub-caste, religion, and socio-economic status, leading to varied outcomes and challenges for unified action and e...
Examines why SCs, despite significant population, struggle for political power, focusing on internal divisions, party strategies, and the gap between constit...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next years
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year
Statement 1 is correct: The MPLAD scheme lets MPs recommend works for local infrastructure and development needs in their constituency. The focus is on creating durable assets that benefit the community. Certain works are prohibited under MPLAD guidelines, which MPs must follow. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme requires MPs to allocate at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year to areas inhabited by the Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by the Scheduled Tribe population. If there are insufficient tribal populations in the MP's constituency, they can recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside their constituency, but within their State of election. If a state does not have Scheduled Tribe inhabited areas, this amount can be utilized in Scheduled Caste areas. Statement 3 is incorrect: Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable, meaning that funds left in the district can be carried forward and utilized in subsequent years. Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority is responsible for coordinating and supervising the works under the scheme at the district level. They also inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Based on the above information, the correct answer is (d).
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Committee consists of 30 members, out of which 20 are elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 are elected by the Rajya Sabha, not the other way around. Statement 3 is Incorrect: A Minister is strictly ineligible to be elected as a member of this Committee. If a member is appointed as a Minister after their election, they immediately cease to be a member of the Committee. There is no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment or any other minister. Statement 4 is Incorrect: The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year, not two years. It is reconstituted annually like other major standing parliamentary committees (e.g., Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee). Since all the statements are incorrect, there is no correct statement. Therefore, the correct option is D.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four. Statement 2 is Correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified regions (including Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh) are exempt from paying income tax on income generated from sources within those areas, as well as on dividends or interest on securities. Statement 3 is Correct: Article 243D of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Furthermore, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, there are exactly two correct statements, which include Statement 2. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and accessibility. It also mandates reservations for PwDs, such as increasing the quota to 4% in government employment and 5% in higher education. Statement 2 is Correct: The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). It focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure (barrier-free public buildings), transport systems (accessible railways, airports, and roads), and information and communication technology (accessible government websites and digital ecosystems). Statement 3 is Incorrect: The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking registered as a not-for-profit company to provide concessional financial assistance to promote entrepreneurship, self-employment, and higher education among PwDs. However, it was set up under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Therefore, the correct option is B.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include - Women and children - Members of SC/ST - Industrial workmen - Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster - Disabled persons - Persons in custody - Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh - Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar . Statement 2 is correct. There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level) Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid. Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. It aims to safeguard the rights, culture, and land of tribal communities while preventing their exploitation. Under this Schedule, the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas has special powers, including the authority to: - Declare any law related to the transfer of tribal land as null and void if it is found to violate the interests of the tribal population. - Prohibit or regulate the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring that tribal communities retain control over their ancestral land and resources. These provisions act as a protective mechanism, preventing tribal communities from being forced or manipulated into selling their land for activities like mining, industries, or large-scale projects without adequate safeguards.
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
Operation Sadbhavana is a unique initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and the North East regions. It focuses on winning the hearts and minds of the local population through various developmental activities and assistance. This includes providing education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and promoting skill development initiatives. _Let's look at the other options:_ * Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure maritime security in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. * Operation Maitri refers to the Indian Armed Forces' humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations to assist friendly countries. A notable example was the aid provided to Nepal during the 2015 earthquake. * Operation Madad is the Indian Navy's effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both within India and to neighboring countries.
With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit. Statement 2 is correct: Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious take home ration of 600 Calories and a maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000 for six months, says the official act.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement I is correct: India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis. * Statement II is correct: India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts.
Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
Examine the evolving pattern of Centre-State financial relations in the context of planned development in India. How far have the recent reforms impacted the fiscal federalism in India?
Discuss the evolution of collegium system in India. Critically examine the advantages and disadvantages of the system of appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India and that of the USA.
"The Attorney General of India plays a crucial role in guiding the legal framework of the Union Government and ensuring sound governance through legal counsel." Discuss his responsibilities, rights and limitations in this regard.
Discuss the nature of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly after the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019. Briefly describe the powers and functions of the Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Compare and contrast the President's power to pardon in India and in the USA. Are there any limits to it in both the countries? What are preemptive pardons?
Compare and contrast the British and Indian approaches to parliamentary sovereignty.
MCQs drawn from today's published current affairs.
The article explicitly states, "The Scheduled Caste (SC) community of Punjab is close to 32% of the total population of the State, the highest in the country..."
The article mentions that political parties fail to "sincerely implement constitutional protections and reservation laws," implying that such provisions *exist* but are not effectively utilized or enforced, rather than being absent. Options A, B, and D are explicitly stated reasons for marginalization in the article.
The article states, "...having produced only one Dalit Chief Minister and that too for a brief period in the year 2021... when Charanjit Singh Channi held the top post for a brief period during the Congress regime..." It also clarifies Giani Zail Singh was a non-Jat Sikh CM before 1977, Kanshi Ram was a political leader who tried to unite SCs, and Sant Niranjan Dass is a Dera head.
Approach: Introduce the paradox of high population vs. low political representation. Detail internal divisions (caste, religion, sects), historical dominance of other groups, and then critically analyze how mainstream parties' 'appeasement politics' hinders genuine empowerment through constitutional mechanisms.
Approach: Explain the role of Deras as influential socio-religious groups and their significance as vote banks for political parties. Analyze how this 'Dera politics' impacts the unity and genuine political empowerment of the diverse SC community, potentially leading to tokenism rather than substantive policy changes.