Parliamentary System & Procedures

Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Governor shall address both Houses of the State Legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the State Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year. The Governor's address outlines the government’s policies, legislative agenda, and key priorities. This address is similar to the President’s address to Parliament under Article 87. Statement 2 is correct: When there is no rule on a particular subject in the State Legislature, under a convention since colonial times, state legislatures follow the rules of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was enacted to prevent disqualification of MPs and MLAs due to holding certain offices that are considered essential for governance. This Act exempts specific posts from disqualification under the Office of Profit clause, ensuring that legislators can hold certain government-appointed positions without losing their seats. Statement 2 is Correct: The 1959 Act has been amended 5 times to expand the list of exempted offices. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term "Office of Profit." Instead, Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) state that a person shall be disqualified from being a Member of Parliament or a State Legislature if they hold an Office of Profit under the government.

In India, the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. are reviewed by the Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament and the Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees. The role of these committees is to ensure that the regulators are performing their duties effectively and in the best interest of the public. The Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, and NITI Aayog do not have the mandate to review the independent regulators. Hence, only 1 and 2 are the correct option codes.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, explicitly gives the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) the discretion to either admit or refuse to admit a motion for the removal of a judge. If the motion is not in order or is deemed frivolous, the Speaker can reject it at the initial stage itself. This power was notably exercised by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in 2018 when he rejected an impeachment motion against the then Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The terms "incapacity" and "proven misbehaviour", which are grounds for the removal of a judge under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, are not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Their interpretation has evolved through judicial pronouncements and parliamentary discussions. Statement 3 is correct: The constitutional provisions related to the removal of judges are found in Articles 124(4), 124(5), 217, and 218. Additionally, the process is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which outlines the procedural framework for investigating misconduct and incapacity. Statement 4 is correct: As per Article 124(4) of the Constitution, for a motion seeking the removal of a Supreme Court or High Court judge to proceed, it must be passed by:
- A majority of the total membership of the House, and
- A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Air India was nationalised in 1953. The Government of India passed the Air Corporation Act in 1953 and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons. Imperial Bank of India was nationalised in 1955, with RBI taking a 60 per cent stake, and its name was changed to SBI. The first democratically elected communist party government was formed in a state in India in 1957. In the first general election held to the Kerala state legislative assembly in 1957, the Communist Party of India won 60 seats out of 126. Goa became an independent state of India on 18 Dec 1961, and Goa was freed from the Portuguese. On Dec 18 1961, Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Government to bring back Goa into India. Therefore correct chronological sequence is 3-2-1-4

Option A is correct. A Bill shall be deemed a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which defines the scope of a Money Bill. Option B is correct. A Money Bill includes provisions regarding the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(c) of the Constitution, a Money Bill may contain provisions related to the custody, withdrawal, and audit of funds from these financial accounts. Option C is incorrect. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is under the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditures, and its withdrawal is not governed by a Money Bill. Instead, Article 267(1) of the Constitution provides for its use, and the withdrawal of money from this fund is later regularized through an Appropriation Bill. Option D is correct. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(d), provisions regarding government borrowing, the issuance of guarantees, and financial obligations of the Government of India fall within the scope of a Money Bill. Thus, statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct, while statement (c) is incorrect.

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation (CSL) is specifically tasked with scrutinizing and reporting on the exercise of delegated powers by the executive branch. They ensure the government is acting within the legal boundaries set by Parliament when creating rules, regulations, etc. Committee on Government Assurances (A) focuses on tracking the implementation of assurances, and promises made by the government in Parliament. Rules Committee (C) deals with framing rules for the smooth functioning of the Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). Business Advisory Committee (D) allocates time for different kinds of legislative and other business of the House. Therefore, only the Committee on Subordinate Legislation directly addresses the scrutiny of delegated powers.

Statement 1 is correct: The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. The value of an MLA's vote is based on the population of their state relative to the number of MLAs in the state assembly. States with larger populations have a higher value per MLA vote. Statement 2 is incorrect: Both MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have the same value for their vote in the presidential election. Hence, the correct answer is option (c) 1 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India. Statement 2 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969. Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members. So, only statement 2 is correct.

Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation. Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down. Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356. Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.