Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs)
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
CAPFs are the backbone of India's internal security apparatus, crucial for maintaining peace, combating terrorism, and managing borders. Understanding their structure, roles, and challenges is vital for GS3 (Internal Security) and GS2 (Federalism).
Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) are the uniform nomenclature for various paramilitary organizations in India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, primarily responsible for internal security, border guarding, and assisting state police forces in maintaining law and order.
Facts & tables
- Parent Ministry
- Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
- Primary Role
- Internal security, border management, counter-insurgency, law & order assistance.
- Examples
- CRPF, BSF, ITBP, SSB, CISF, NSG, Assam Rifles.
- Deployment
- Deployed across states and Union Territories, often in aid of civil administration.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Internal Security |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Ministry of Home Affairs | Administers |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Factual recall
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Umbrella term for central paramilitary forces under MHA.
- Key roles: internal security, border guarding, counter-insurgency.
- Examples: CRPF, BSF, ITBP, SSB, CISF, NSG, Assam Rifles.
- Deployment often involves Centre-State coordination.
- Crucial for national security and law enforcement.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2023 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2022 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2018 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2014 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
Timeline
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Internal Security
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2014
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2018
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2022
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2023
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
89 additional CAPF units, advanced surveillance, real-time monitoring for safe Amarnath yatra this year
CAPFs are MHA-controlled central forces for internal security, border guarding, and law enforcement support to states, playing a critical role in India's federal security framework.
See also
No related topics linked yet.
Past papers
2014–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
89 additional CAPF units, advanced surveillance, real-time monitoring for safe Amarnath yatra this year
CAPFs are MHA-controlled central forces for internal security, border guarding, and law enforcement support to states, playing a critical role in India's federal security framework.
Try these PYQs
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How Many of the above statements are correct?
* Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories (not the central Government). They are recruited from all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for the betterment of the community. * Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the Police in the maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic, etc., help in the maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties. * Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.), and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura, and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in the vulnerable area at the time of external aggression. Therefore, only two statements are correct.
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation. Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down. Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356. Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes' advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes. Option B is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body. Option C is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not convert the area into a Union Territory. Option D is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not get declared as a Special Category State.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the different units of the Indian Federation such as between the Centre and one or more states and, between the states.
Show 3 more PYQs
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
Regulation of minor minerals is mainly a State subject under the MMDR Act, 1957. States have the authority to make rules for extraction concessions. ✅ Statement II: Correct
The Central Government notifies which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. * Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) mentions that individuals detained under preventive detention laws are not initially entitled to consult or be defended by a legal practitioner until the grounds of detention are disclosed to them. Although the constitution allows for exceptions in preventive detention cases, it does not prohibit state governments from providing legal counsel to the detained person. The state has the discretion to offer legal assistance if it wishes. * Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32(1) of POTA 2002 allows confessions made to a police officer of at least Superintendent rank, overriding certain provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act.