Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS)
Indian Economy
- PYQs15
- Articles2
Background
CSS are a cornerstone of India's fiscal federalism and development planning. Understanding their design, funding, implementation challenges, and impact on centre-state relations is vital for analyzing governance and public policy.
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are a category of schemes implemented by state governments but largely funded by the Central Government, designed to encourage states to implement national priorities in areas like social welfare, rural development, and poverty alleviation.
Facts & tables
- Implementation
- Implemented by State Governments/UT Administrations.
- Funding Pattern
- Funding is shared between the Centre and States, though some schemes (like 'Support to TRIs') can be 100% centrally funded.
- Administration
- Administered by various Central Ministries.
- Objective
- Aims to achieve national objectives through state-level implementation, often in subjects listed in the State List.
- Funding Mechanism
- Funds are released by the Government of India to states for specific projects, such as the Computerization of PACS.
- Implementation Responsibility
- States are responsible for implementing the schemes, with adherence to prescribed rules and guidelines.
- Utilization Challenges
- Non-utilization of funds by states in accordance with prescribed rules can lead to non-release of allocated funds in subsequent years.
- Example
- The 'Computerization of PACS Project' is explicitly mentioned as a Central Sponsored Project.
| Feature | Centrally Sponsored Schemes | Central Sector Schemes |
|---|---|---|
| Implementation | States/UTs | Central Government/Agencies |
| Funding | Centre-State share (can be 100% Centre) | 100% Central Government |
| Focus | National priorities via state action | Union List subjects, direct central impact |
| Feature | Central Sector Schemes | Centrally Sponsored Schemes |
|---|---|---|
| Funding | 100% by Central Govt. | Shared by Central & State Govts. |
| Implementation | By Central Govt. agencies | By State Govts. |
| Subject Matter | Union List | State/Concurrent List |
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Fiscal Policy & Public Debt |
| Conceptual area | Federal Structure & Centre-State Relations |
| Conceptual area | Fiscal Federalism |
| Conceptual area | Public Finance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Ministry of Tribal Affairs | Administers specific css (support to tris) |
| Government of India | Funds and designs |
| State Governments | Implements |
| Department of Expenditure, Government of India | Issues guidelines for fund release |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Statement-based questions
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Implemented by states, funded by Centre.
- Funding share varies (e.g., 100% Centre for some).
- Aims to achieve national priorities.
- Key tool for federal fiscal transfers.
- Distinct from Central Sector Schemes.
Treaty = agreement between states; body = institution.
Ministry sets policy; regulator often has quasi-judicial powers.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Purpose or function of a policy tool, Factual recall |
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2022 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2016 | Purpose or function of a policy tool, Factual recall |
| 2015 | Conceptual understanding, Policy measures |
| 2015 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2013 | Purpose or function of a policy tool, Conceptual understanding |
| 2013 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2013 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2013 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
Timeline
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Fiscal Policy & Public Debt
Conceptual area
-
Federal Structure & Centre-State Relations
Conceptual area
-
Fiscal Federalism
Conceptual area
-
Public Finance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2013
Purpose or function of a policy tool, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2013
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
-
Prelims 2013
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2013
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2015
Conceptual understanding, Policy measures
-
Prelims 2015
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2016
Purpose or function of a policy tool, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2022
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2026
Purpose or function of a policy tool, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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SETUP OF TRIBAL-FOCUSED MUSEUMS
Centrally Sponsored Schemes are a key fiscal mechanism where the Central Government funds state-implemented programs to achieve national objectives, with varying funding patterns, including 100% central funding for specific schemes.
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Strengthening of cooperative institutions in Punjab
Centrally Sponsored Schemes are central government-funded programs implemented by states to achieve national development goals, often facing challenges related to fund utilization and adherence to guidelines, reflecting the dynamics of cooperative federalism.
See also
Past papers
2013–2026 · 14 questions
In the news
Strengthening of cooperative institutions in Punjab
Centrally Sponsored Schemes are central government-funded programs implemented by states to achieve national development goals, often facing challenges related to fund utilization and adherence to guidelines, reflecting the dynamics of cooperative federalism.
SETUP OF TRIBAL-FOCUSED MUSEUMS
Centrally Sponsored Schemes are a key fiscal mechanism where the Central Government funds state-implemented programs to achieve national objectives, with varying funding patterns, including 100% central funding for specific schemes.
Try these PYQs
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Statement 1 is Correct: The Fourteenth Finance Commission indeed increased the devolution of tax revenue from the central government to the states. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While promoting formula-based devolution, the commission does not provide recommendations regarding sector-specific grants to ensure focus on critical areas.
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Consider the following statements :
The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
* The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is an agreement, among all of the 27 member states of the European Union, to facilitate and maintain the economic stability of the EU countries.The European Commission and the Council of the European Union, monitors the fiscal condition of EU member countries from time to time to ensure their fiscal stability. * Statement 1 is correct: It is true that SGP aims to level the budget deficits of European countries. The corrective arm of the Stability and Growth Pact ensures that Member States adopt appropriate policy responses to correct excessive deficits (and/or debts) by implementing the Excessive Deficit Procedure (EDP). Also the SGP requires the EU Member States to lay out their fiscal plans for the next three years to limit their budget deficits. * Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: The SGP treaty does not require its members to share their infrastructure facilities nor their technologies with other countries. The purpose of the SGP was to ensure that fiscal discipline would be maintained and enforced in the European Union.
Show 10 more PYQs
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt;
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Statement 1 is correct: A portion of household financial savings in India does indeed go towards government borrowings. The government raises funds through various debt instruments like bonds and treasury bills. When households save money, they might invest it in these government debt instruments through banks or other financial institutions. This provides a source of funding for the government while offering a return to the investors (savers). Statement 2 is correct: Dated securities are a major component of India's internal debt. These are essentially government bonds issued at market-determined interest rates through auctions. Investors, including households, banks, and financial institutions, can participate in these auctions and purchase dated securities. Hence, both statements are correct.
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
The National Development Council (NDC) in India is comprised of the following members: * The Prime Minister (who chairs the council)
* Ministers of the Union Cabinet
* Chief Ministers of the States The Chairman, Finance Commission - while the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending the devolution of financial resources from the central government to the states, the Chairman is not a member of the NDC. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._
Consider the following statements
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability. Statement 2 is not correct. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)).
Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._
Consider the following statements
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?
The Hilton-Young Commission (1926), officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at an artificially high ratio of 1s 6d (1 shilling 6 pence) per rupee, instead of the pre-war rate of 1s 4d. Option A is correct: The colonial administration adopted this artificially high rate primarily to ease the burden of "Home Charges." These were massive, mandatory sterling-denominated remittances sent from India to Britain to cover administrative costs, pensions, military expenses, and interest on public debt. By keeping the rupee artificially strong against the sterling, the Government of India had to extract fewer rupees from the domestic economy to purchase the sterling required for these remittances. This facilitated the steady flow of funds to Britain and ensured India could easily service its sterling debt, thereby maintaining its financial creditworthiness in London. Option B is incorrect: While an overvalued rupee did make imports cheaper (benefiting British manufacturers like Lancashire textiles), the primary motive of the British Government was to manage its own fiscal burden regarding remittances, not to provide support to Indian importers. Option C is incorrect: The artificially high exchange rate actually harmed Indian exports. It made Indian goods, such as cotton produce, more expensive and uncompetitive in the international market, which sparked intense opposition from Indian nationalists and businessmen during the "Ratio Controversy." Option D is incorrect: The primary objective of fixing the exchange rate at 1s 6d was to facilitate the transfer of sterling remittances (Home Charges) to Britain and manage the colonial government's budget, rather than merely preventing the depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold. Therefore, the correct option is A.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement-I: This statement is correct. If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds would not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. This statement is correct because, in the event of a default, the government would not be able to fulfil its debt obligations, meaning bondholders would not receive the payments they are due. * Statement-II: This statement is correct. The US government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. This statement is also correct. US Government debt, such as Treasury Bonds, is backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government rather than any specific physical assets. * Statement II explains Statement I because the faith and credit of the US Government are the guarantees behind its debt. If this faith is shaken or if the government defaults, bondholders cannot claim any specific assets to recover their investment, hence they would not receive their payments.
Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?
The UDAY scheme (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana), launched by the Government of India in 2015, has multiple objectives aimed at improving the financial health and operational efficiency of electricity distribution companies (DISCOMs) in India.
In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
In India, deficit financing is used to raise resources for meeting the government's expenditure requirements when its revenue or receipts fall short of its planned expenditures. In other words, deficit financing is a way for the government to finance its budget deficit to stimulate economic growth.
There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
To reduce a persistent budget deficit, the government can take actions that decrease spending or increase revenue. 1. Reducing revenue expenditure (Correct): This involves cutting back on non-essential government spending. This can include areas like administrative costs, travel, or certain subsidies. 2. Introducing new welfare schemes (Incorrect): This would likely increase government spending and worsen the deficit. 3. Rationalizing subsidies (Correct): Subsidies can be a significant source of government expenditure. Reviewing and potentially reducing or reforming subsidies can help control spending. 4. Expanding industries (Depends): While industrial expansion can lead to increased tax revenue in the long run, it might not have an immediate impact on the budget deficit. In the short term, the government might need to invest in infrastructure to support expansion, potentially increasing expenditure. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only (Reducing revenue expenditure and Rationalizing subsidies).