Eighth Schedule to the Constitution
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Understanding the constitutional provisions related to language, the challenges in policy-making (lack of criteria), the dynamic nature of language evolution, and its implications for federalism and cultural identity. It is a recurring topic in Indian Polity.
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of the Republic of India, recognizing their importance and promoting their development. It is a crucial aspect of India's linguistic policy, reflecting the nation's diverse cultural fabric and federal structure.
Facts & tables
- Current Languages
- Currently lists 22 languages.
- Inclusion Criteria
- No fixed criteria for inclusion of new languages.
- Committee Reports
- Pahwa and Sitakant Mohapatra Committees were inconclusive in fixing criteria.
- Dynamic Process
- Inclusion is influenced by socio-cultural, economic, and political developments.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Ministry of Home Affairs | Responsible for matters related to the eighth schedule and language policy |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Factual recall
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
- Lists 22 official languages.
- No fixed criteria for inclusion.
- Pahwa & Sitakant Mohapatra Committees inconclusive.
- Dynamic process of language evolution.
- Reflects India's linguistic diversity.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2022 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2019 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2018 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2018
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2019
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2022
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2025
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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INCLUSION OF GOR BOLI IN THE EIGHTH SCHEDULE
The Eighth Schedule lists India's official languages. Despite demands for new inclusions like 'Gor Boli', there are no fixed criteria, as highlighted by inconclusive committee reports (Pahwa, Sitakant Mohapatra). Language evolution is dynamic, making criteria difficult to establish.
See also
No related topics linked yet.
Past papers
2018–2026 · 8 questions
In the news
INCLUSION OF GOR BOLI IN THE EIGHTH SCHEDULE
The Eighth Schedule lists India's official languages. Despite demands for new inclusions like 'Gor Boli', there are no fixed criteria, as highlighted by inconclusive committee reports (Pahwa, Sitakant Mohapatra). Language evolution is dynamic, making criteria difficult to establish.
Try these PYQs
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
* The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 amended the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to include Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages. * These languages were added to grant official recognition and promote their cultural and linguistic development. * Konkani is primarily spoken in Goa, Manipuri in Manipur, and Nepali in Sikkim and Darjeeling (West Bengal). * Maithili, however, was added later through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, along with Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali.
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. Therefore, neither statement is correct.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Article 393 of the Constitution explicitly specifies its short title. It states verbatim, "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 395 of the Constitution contains a specific provision repealing foundational colonial-era laws. It explicitly states that the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act (excluding the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949), are repealed. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Article 394 of the Constitution explicitly mentions its commencement date. It lists specific articles (such as those related to citizenship and elections) that came into force immediately upon adoption, and then states that the remaining provisions "shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution." Since all three statements are incorrect, there is no correct statement. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there is no correct statement.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Show 3 more PYQs
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. It aims to safeguard the rights, culture, and land of tribal communities while preventing their exploitation. Under this Schedule, the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas has special powers, including the authority to: - Declare any law related to the transfer of tribal land as null and void if it is found to violate the interests of the tribal population. - Prohibit or regulate the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring that tribal communities retain control over their ancestral land and resources. These provisions act as a protective mechanism, preventing tribal communities from being forced or manipulated into selling their land for activities like mining, industries, or large-scale projects without adequate safeguards.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four. Statement 2 is Correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified regions (including Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh) are exempt from paying income tax on income generated from sources within those areas, as well as on dividends or interest on securities. Statement 3 is Correct: Article 243D of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Furthermore, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, there are exactly two correct statements, which include Statement 2. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government/including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four fixed ranks. There are broadly two categories based on parliamentary convention - Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State (with or without independent charge). The number of ranks can vary based on the specific structure chosen by the government. Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Amendment to the Constitution limits the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.