Environmental Governance and Federalism in India
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Essential for understanding the practical challenges of implementing environmental policies, the role of the judiciary, and the dynamics of federalism in India. Relevant for GS2 (Polity & Governance) and GS3 (Environment).
Environmental governance in India involves a complex interplay between central and state governments, statutory bodies, judicial directives, and local communities. Federalism dictates that both the Union and States have responsibilities in environmental protection, often leading to shared jurisdiction and potential conflicts over resource management and conservation priorities.
Facts & tables
- Concurrent List
- Wildlife protection falls under the Concurrent List (Entry 17B), allowing both Centre and States to legislate, leading to potential overlaps or conflicts.
- Judicial Overreach/Guidance
- Supreme Court judgments can mandate national conservation priorities, sometimes overriding state-level resistance for national heritage species.
- State-level Resistance
- State-level political, identity, and economic considerations can impede the implementation of national conservation plans and judicial directives.
- Policy Impasse
- Highlights the tension between scientific consensus, judicial mandates, and regional interests in policy execution, as seen in the Asiatic lion translocation delay.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity and Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Supreme Court of India | Interprets law and issues directives |
| State Governments (e.g., Gujarat) | Implements/resists policy |
| Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) | Formulates national policy |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Wildlife: Concurrent List (Centre & States).
- Federalism: shared responsibility, potential for conflict.
- Judiciary (SC) can mandate national priorities.
- State interests (political, identity) can impede implementation.
- Highlights gap between policy formulation and execution.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2016 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Indian Polity and Governance
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2016
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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India needs a second home for Asiatic lions
Examines the challenges arising from shared environmental jurisdiction between the Centre and States, where regional interests and political considerations can delay or obstruct the implementation of scientifically backed and judicially mandated conservation policies.
See also
No related topics linked yet.
Past papers
2016–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
India needs a second home for Asiatic lions
Examines the challenges arising from shared environmental jurisdiction between the Centre and States, where regional interests and political considerations can delay or obstruct the implementation of scientifically backed and judicially mandated conservation policies.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Constitution outlines specific roles where the Governor can act at his/her own discretion, but it does not allow the President to unilaterally intervene in State legislation without the Governor's involvement. ✅ Statement I: Correct
* The Governor can act in discretion in certain cases (e.g., reserving a bill for the President under Article 200, or appointing a CM in a hung assembly).
* Article 163(2) makes the Governor’s discretion final in such matters. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
* The President cannot suo motu reserve a State bill. Only the Governor can do this under Article 200.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Show 3 more PYQs
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 244(1) of the Constitution's Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas are areas that the President may declare to be such by order after consultation with the Governor of that State. * Statement 2 is correct: District is considered as the largest administrative unit which forms the Scheduled Area while the lowest administrative unit is the cluster of villages in the Block. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India states in para 3 that the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the Administration of the said areas.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions. ✅ I. Inter-State Council – Correct
* Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination. ❌ II. National Security Council – Incorrect
* Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution. ❌ III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect
* Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.