Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA)
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs14
- Articles2
Background
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) is an Indian law enacted to regulate the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions or hospitality by individuals, associations, and companies. Administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), its primary objective is to ensure that foreign funding does not adversely affect national interest, sovereignty, or public order.
Understanding the FCRA is crucial for GS2 (Governance, role of NGOs, statutory bodies, national security). It reflects the state's approach to civil society, foreign funding, and its implications for fundamental rights and democratic space.
- Foreign Contribution
- Any donation, delivery, or transfer of any article, currency, or security by a foreign source.
- Foreign Source
- Government of any foreign country, foreign company, foreign trust, foreign citizen, etc.
- Association
- An association of persons, whether incorporated or not, having a definite object.
- Prior Permission
- Required for entities not registered under FCRA but wishing to receive a specific foreign contribution for a specific purpose.
- Registration
- Granted to associations having a definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, or social program, enabling them to receive foreign contributions on a continuing basis.
Facts & tables
Objectives: The FCRA's core objectives include regulating the inflow of foreign funds, ensuring transparency in their utilization, and preventing their diversion for undesirable activities. It seeks to maintain national security and public order by monitoring foreign influence and preventing foreign funding from being used for activities detrimental to India's interests.
Scope and Applicability: The Act applies to individuals, associations, and companies registered or incorporated in India that receive foreign contributions. It covers all forms of foreign contributions, including currency, articles, and securities, and mandates that such contributions must be used for the purpose for which they were received.
- Administering Ministry
- Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
- Requirement for Funds
- Mandates registration or prior permission for receiving foreign funds.
- Key Amendment
- FCRA (Amendment) Act, 2020, significantly tightened regulations.
- Designated Bank Account
- Foreign contributions must be received in a designated SBI, New Delhi Main Branch account.
- Fund Transfer Restriction
- Transfer of foreign funds to other entities is prohibited under the 2020 amendment.
- Administrative Expense Cap
- Administrative expenses are capped at 20% of the foreign contribution.
- Aadhaar Mandate
- Aadhaar is mandatory for key office bearers of recipient organizations.
- Consequences of Violation
- Violations can lead to suspension or cancellation of registration and penal action.
| Feature | FCRA 2010 | FCRA 2020 (Amendment) |
|---|---|---|
| Designated Bank Account | Any scheduled bank | Only SBI, New Delhi Main Branch (for initial receipt) |
| Transfer of Funds | Allowed to other FCRA-registered entities | Prohibited (cannot transfer to any other person/entity) |
| Administrative Expenses | Up to 50% of foreign contribution | Reduced to 20% of foreign contribution |
| Aadhaar for Office Bearers | Not mandatory | Mandatory for key functionaries |
| Suspension Period | Up to 180 days | Up to 180 days (can be extended) |
| Surrender of Certificate | Allowed | Allowed, with government inquiry |
| Category | Examples |
|---|---|
| Political Parties & Candidates | Any political party, office-bearer of a political party, candidate for election |
| Public Servants | Judges, government servants, employees of any corporation owned or controlled by the government |
| Media Personnel | Correspondents, columnists, cartoonists, editors, owners, printers or publishers of a registered newspaper |
| Organizations of Political Nature | Any organization declared to be of a political nature by the Central Government |
| Others | Members of any legislature, organizations working for the benefit of a political party |
| Amendment Year | Key Provision |
|---|---|
| Original Act | Regulates foreign contributions to protect national interest. |
| 2020 Amendments | Single bank account, 20% admin limit, no sub-granting. |
| 2026 Bill (Proposed) | Automatic cessation, asset vesting, centralised enforcement. |
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Conceptual area | Constitutional & Statutory Bodies |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Ministry of Home Affairs | Administers and enforces fcra |
| Ministry of Home Affairs (India) | Administers and enforces fcra |
Prelims angle
Prelims: UPSC Prelims can test factual aspects like the administering ministry, key provisions of the 2020 amendment (e.g., SBI account, administrative expense limit, transfer prohibition, Aadhaar mandate), and categories of prohibited recipients. Questions might also focus on the objectives of the Act, its evolution, and the types of entities it covers.
Mains: For Mains, the FCRA is a critical topic for GS-II (Polity & Governance, Social Justice). Questions could explore the balance between national security and civil liberties, the impact of FCRA amendments on civil society and NGOs, the role of foreign funding in development and advocacy, and the implications for India's international image. Debates around transparency, accountability, and potential misuse of the Act to stifle dissent are common themes. Candidates should be prepared to analyze the government's rationale versus concerns raised by NGOs and international bodies.
- Regulates foreign funding for NGOs in India.
- Administered by Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Aims to protect national interest from adverse foreign influence.
- Often debated for its impact on civil society.
- Recent amendments have tightened regulations.
Check if created by Constitution or by Parliament.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2024 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2024 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2023 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2022 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2017 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2015 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
Current affairs
Recent amendments to the FCRA, particularly in 2020, have significantly tightened regulations on foreign funding for NGOs, leading to increased scrutiny and a substantial reduction in the number of active FCRA-registered organizations.
Rationale for Amendments: The government's stated rationale for the 2020 amendments includes enhancing transparency, ensuring accountability, preventing diversion of funds, and safeguarding national interest. It argued that many NGOs were not utilizing funds for the stated purpose or were involved in activities detrimental to the country's security and public order.
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
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Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2015
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2017
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2018
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2022
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2023
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2024
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio arrives in Kolkata, visits Saint Teresa’s Mother House
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) is an Indian law that regulates the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and companies. Administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, its primary objective is to prevent foreign funding from adversely affecting national interest.
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FCRA Bill — expanding state control over civil society
The FCRA is a statutory law regulating foreign funding to Indian entities. Recent amendments (2020) and proposed changes (2026 Bill) have significantly tightened controls, introducing provisions like automatic registration cessation and government vesting of assets, raising concerns about executive overreach and the survival of civil society organisations.
See also
Dashed boxes: related topics without a notes page yet. Tap a solid box to open notes.
Past papers
2015–2026 · 14 questions
In the news
FCRA Bill — expanding state control over civil society
The FCRA is a statutory law regulating foreign funding to Indian entities. Recent amendments (2020) and proposed changes (2026 Bill) have significantly tightened controls, introducing provisions like automatic registration cessation and government vesting of assets, raising concerns about executive overreach and the survival of civil society organisations.
U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio arrives in Kolkata, visits Saint Teresa’s Mother House
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) is an Indian law that regulates the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and companies. Administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, its primary objective is to prevent foreign funding from adversely affecting national interest.
Try these PYQs
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
| Organization | Some of its Functions | It Works Under |
|--------------------|------------------------|--------------------------------|
| Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
| Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
| Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
The question relates to the correct mapping of key investigative and analytical bodies under the Government of India and their parent ministries or departments. ❌ Row I: Incorrect The Directorate of Enforcement does implement the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. ✅ Row II: Correct The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. ✅ Row III: Correct The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management aids in big data analytics for tax enforcement and operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established under the *North Eastern Council Act, 1971* to ensure the balanced and coordinated development of the North Eastern Region. After the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the structure and composition of the Council were modified. As per Section 3(1) of the *NEC Act, 1971 (as amended)*, the Council shall consist of the following members: 1. The Chief Ministers of the Constituent States
2. The Governors of the Constituent States
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India These are the only members of the Council as defined by the Act. Further, Section 3(2) specifies that:
“The Union Home Minister shall be the ex officio Chairman of the Council, and the Minister of the Central Government in charge of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) shall be the ex officio Vice-Chairman of the Council.” Thus, while the Union Home Minister serves as the ex officio Chairman, he does not form part of the Council as a member under Section 3(1). Similarly, the Minister of DoNER is the ex officio Vice-Chairman, but not a member of the Council.
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India. Statement 2 is correct: The NGT’s primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts. The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment. Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is not a five-member body. It is a three-member body, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs). However, it originally started as a single-member body in 1950 and became a multi-member commission in 1993. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) does not decide the election schedule. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is solely responsible for determining the schedule of general elections and bye-elections. It exercises this power under Article 324 of the Constitution, ensuring free and fair elections in the country. Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission of India has the authority to resolve disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties. It decides which faction of a party is the legitimate one and, if necessary, allocates party symbols accordingly, based on precedents and internal party strength. Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 3 only.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
Show 9 more PYQs
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. This is a provision under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. This is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), but it does not have the power to vote on the demands for grants. This is also the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void. * Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill. * Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: While a Finance Bill (Category I under Art 117) is introduced only in the Lok Sabha (similar to a Money Bill), it is passed according to the ordinary legislative procedure. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it. Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill (Article 110) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. It can only make recommendations which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. Statement 3 is incorrect: While a Joint Sitting is not provided for Money Bills, it is available for Finance Bills. However, it is not "necessary" (mandatory) to hold one. Under Article 108, the President "may" summon a Joint Sitting to resolve the deadlock, but is not obliged to do so; the bill could simply be allowed to lapse.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, 1953 and it was established to regulate the Indian tea industry and protect the interests of tea producers in India. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tea Board of India's Head Office is situated in Kolkata. Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, London, and New York.
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions. ✅ I. Inter-State Council – Correct
* Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination. ❌ II. National Security Council – Incorrect
* Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution. ❌ III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect
* Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.
Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
The independent regulator, Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), set up under the TRAI Act of 1997, was the first independent regulator in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB is tasked to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Statement 3 is correct: The Appellate Tribunal established under Section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (Central Act 36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal to appeal against the decisions of the PNGRB.
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946. This was a temporary position. He served as the Chairman for two days, after which Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. Here's why the other options are incorrect: * C. Rajagopalachari: He was the last Governor-General of India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. * Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. * T.T. Krishnamachari: He was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and later served as the Finance Minister of India.