Editorials thehindu.com

FCRA Bill — expanding state control over civil society

12 June 2026 Source

Exam Summary

The article analyzes the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment (FCRA) Bill, 2026, which significantly expands state control over civil society organizations. Key provisions include automatic cessation of FCRA registration and the provisional, and potentially permanent, vesting of organizational assets and foreign contributions in a government-designated authority without prior judicial review. Critics argue that these amendments undermine due process, increase executive discretion, and threaten fundamental rights such as freedom of association, religious autonomy, and property rights (Articles 14, 19(1)(c), 25, 26, 29, 30, 300A). The Bill is seen as a serious threat to the functioning and survival of NGOs, including those serving minority communities, potentially crippling essential services and creating a chilling effect on civil society.

GS Paper II: Indian Polity and Governance

UPSC concepts in this story

These are durable syllabus ideas — use them for revision, not article memory.

Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA)

The FCRA is a statutory law regulating foreign funding to Indian entities. Recent amendments (2020) and proposed changes (2026 Bill) have significantly tight...

Indian Polity & Governance 14 PYQs 2 developments

Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • The FCRA Bill, 2026, introduces significant amendments to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, impacting NGOs and civil society.
  • Key provisions include Section 14B (automatic cessation of FCRA registration) and Section 16A (provisional/permanent vesting of assets in a government-designated authority upon cancellation without judicial review).
  • The Bill centralizes enforcement (Section 43) and increases executive control over foreign funding and assets of organizations.
  • It raises concerns regarding due process, judicial review, and the autonomy of civil society organizations.
  • The Bill's provisions are argued to threaten fundamental rights, specifically Articles 14, 19(1)(c), 25, 26, 29, 30, and the constitutional right to property (Article 300A).
  • Proceeds from the sale of vested assets can be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.

Elimination Traps

  • Confusing the provisions of the 2020 FCRA amendments with the new proposals in the 2026 Bill.
  • Misinterpreting the distinction between 'provisional vesting' and 'permanent vesting' of assets.
  • Overlooking the specific constitutional articles (e.g., 14, 19(1)(c), 25, 26, 29, 30, 300A) mentioned as being under threat.

Static Concepts

  • Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA)
  • Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs)
  • Civil Society
  • Executive Discretion
  • Judicial Review
  • Due Process
  • Freedom of Association (Article 19(1)(c))
  • Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • Freedom of Conscience and Free Profession, Practice and Propagation of Religion (Article 25)
  • Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs (Article 26)
  • Protection of Interests of Minorities (Article 29)
  • Right of Minorities to Establish and Administer Educational Institutions (Article 30)
  • Right to Property (Article 300A)
  • Consolidated Fund of India

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • Key provisions and implications of the FCRA Bill, 2026 (e.g., Sections 14B, 16A).
Question areas
  • Impact of FCRA amendments on the functioning of NGOs and civil society in India.
Question areas
  • Constitutional challenges and implications of the Bill, particularly concerning fundamental rights and the right to property.
Question areas
  • Role and powers of the 'Designated Authority' under the proposed Bill.
Question areas
  • Comparison of the FCRA 2020 amendments with the new provisions of the 2026 Bill.
Conceptual Recurrence

Related Prelims PYQs

Ranked by topic match, theme match, recency, and recurring UPSC patterns.

UPSC Prelims 2018 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualifications laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 2
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. 1 and 3
  4. D. 3 only
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Indian Polity & Governance Social Justice & Development Fundamental Rights Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2021 Indian Polity

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  1. A. Article 14
  2. B. Article 28
  3. C. Article 32
  4. D. Article 44
Explanation
Correct answer
A. Article 14

* The legislation described would violate Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. * Article 14 guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. This means that laws must be applied fairly and consistently, and everyone should be treated equally under the law. * Legislation that gives unchecked power to the executive or administration to apply the law violates this principle. Option B is incorrect. Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion. Option C is incorrect. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Option D is incorrect. Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

Indian Polity & Governance Fundamental Rights Separation Of Powers & Constitutional Ideals
UPSC Prelims 2019 Science & Technology

Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 3 only
  2. B. 2 and 3 only
  3. C. 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry. Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties. _Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._

Science & Technology Indian Polity & Governance Intellectual Property Rights & Regulations Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

  1. A. 1st Amendment
  2. B. 42nd Amendment
  3. C. 44th Amendment
  4. D. 86thAmendment
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1st Amendment

* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Fundamental Rights Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2019 Indian Polity

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

  1. A. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. C. Indira Gandhi
  4. D. Morarji Desai
Explanation
Correct answer
A. Jawaharlal Nehru

The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 to protect certain laws, particularly those related to land reforms, from judicial review. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the Constitution (First Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha in 1951. This amendment aimed to safeguard progressive socio-economic legislation from being struck down by courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to property under Article 31 (which was later repealed by the 44th Amendment in 1978).

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional Amendments & Structure Fundamental Rights Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2021 Indian Polity

With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 Only
  2. B. 2 Only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 Only

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2021 Indian Polity

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

  1. A. Legal right available to citizens only
  2. B. Legal right available to any person
  3. C. Fundamental Right available to citizens only
  4. D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Legal right available to any person

Previously a Fundamental Right
- Before 1978, the Indian Constitution guaranteed the right to property as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.
- This meant citizens had the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of their property.
- Article 31 also ensured that the government couldn't take over private property without due compensation and for public purposes only. Change in 1978
- The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 changed the status of the Right to Property.
- Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were removed from the list of fundamental rights.
- A new Article, 300-A, was introduced under Part XII of the Constitution. Current Status: A legal right available to any person.
- Article 300-A states, "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."
- This means the government can still acquire private property, but only under legal authorization.
- The law should be fair and reasonable, and the government has the power to decide the quantum of compensation.

Indian Polity & Governance Fundamental Rights Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2020 Indian Polity

A constitutional government by definition is a

  1. A. government by legislature.
  2. B. popular government
  3. C. multi-party government
  4. D. limited government
Explanation
Correct answer
D. limited government

A constitutional government is, by definition, a limited government. In a constitutional government, the powers of the government are restricted by a constitution. This document sets out the rules, principles, and framework within which the government must operate. One of the core features of a constitutional government is the separation of powers. This principle divides the governmental authority into distinct branches (legislative, executive, and judiciary) to ensure that no single branch gains too much power. It also guarantees fundamental rights, ensuring government actions remain within a legal framework. Thus, a constitutional government operates under checks and balances, preventing absolute power and upholding the rule of law.

Indian Polity & Governance Separation Of Powers & Constitutional Ideals Fundamental Rights Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2025 Indian Polity

With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. A. Only one
  2. B. Only two
  3. C. All the three
  4. D. None
Explanation
Correct answer
A. Only one

Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions. ✅ I. Inter-State Council – Correct
* Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination. ❌ II. National Security Council – Incorrect
* Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution. ❌ III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect
* Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Federal Structure & Centre State Relations