Inter-State Water Disputes and Cooperation
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
UPSC examines candidates' understanding of India's federal dynamics, the constitutional framework for resolving inter-state disputes, and the effectiveness of institutional mechanisms in managing shared natural resources like water.
Inter-State water disputes are a recurring challenge in India's federal structure, often arising from competing demands for shared river resources. Mechanisms for cooperation, such as inter-state boards and tribunals, are crucial for equitable distribution and conflict resolution, underpinned by constitutional provisions.
Facts & tables
- Constitutional Basis
- Article 262 empowers Parliament to adjudicate inter-state river water disputes.
- Tungabhadra Board
- Regulates water releases and manages the Tungabhadra dam, serving as a model for cooperation.
- Upper Bhadra Project
- A major lift irrigation scheme in Karnataka, identified as an irritant for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, highlighting ongoing disputes.
- Water Sharing Formula
- The Tungabhadra dam has largely remained free of major disputes due to an established water-sharing formula.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Tungabhadra Board | Regulates |
| Union Jal Shakti Ministry | Facilitates |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Factual recall
Prelims angle: Institutional roles and functions
- Article 262: Parliament's power over inter-state river disputes.
- Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956: Framework for tribunals.
- Role of River Boards Act, 1956 (though less active).
- Challenges: Siltation, climate change impact on water availability, new projects.
- Importance of cooperative federalism in resource sharing.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2018 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2016 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2014 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2014
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2016
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2018
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2018
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Sharing waters: The Hindu Editorial on the tungabhadra model
Inter-State water disputes are a critical aspect of Indian federalism, governed by Article 262 and the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act. While mechanisms like the Tungabhadra Board facilitate cooperation, new projects like Upper Bhadra can reignite tensions, necessitating continuous dialogue and robust dispute resolution.
See also
Past papers
2014–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
Sharing waters: The Hindu Editorial on the tungabhadra model
Inter-State water disputes are a critical aspect of Indian federalism, governed by Article 262 and the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act. While mechanisms like the Tungabhadra Board facilitate cooperation, new projects like Upper Bhadra can reignite tensions, necessitating continuous dialogue and robust dispute resolution.
Try these PYQs
In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935. Residuary Power was given to the
In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, the residuary power was given to the Governor General. This means that the Governor General had the authority to deal with any legislative matters that weren't explicitly assigned to either the federal legislature or the provincial legislatures. This gave the Governor General significant control over the legislative process.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
Regulation of minor minerals is mainly a State subject under the MMDR Act, 1957. States have the authority to make rules for extraction concessions. ✅ Statement II: Correct
The Central Government notifies which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.
Show 3 more PYQs
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation. Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down. Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356. Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the different units of the Indian Federation such as between the Centre and one or more states and, between the states.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.