UPSC Prelims 2013
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2015
Indian Polity
The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -
- A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
- B. determine the boundaries between states
- C. determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
- D. protect the interests of all the border States
Explanation
Correct answer
A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule: Applies to all states except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It focuses on Management and administration of Scheduled Areas: These are areas with a high concentration of tribal populations. The schedule grants them some autonomy and safeguards their traditional rights over land and resources. Establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils: These councils advise the Governor on matters related to the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes. Sixth Schedule: Applies to the four aforementioned northeastern states with significant tribal populations. It provides greater autonomy compared to the Fifth Schedule by Creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs): These councils have a greater degree of administrative and legislative power within their designated areas. Special provisions for administration of tribal areas: This includes protection of customary law, inheritance practices, and social customs of the tribes.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2023
Social Issues & Schemes
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
* Statement I is correct: India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis. * Statement II is correct: India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts.
Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Social Justice & Development
Indian Polity & Governance
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2022
Social Issues & Schemes
Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government
of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts, etc., to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. It is not funded by WHO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s premier urban think tank, shaping the urban narrative since its establishment in 1976, it not an apex body. It is an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act.
Social Justice & Development
Indian Polity & Governance
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2016
Social Issues & Schemes
What is/are the purpose of ‘District Mineral Foundations” in India?
1. Promoting mineral explorative activities in mineral-rich districts
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) were established in India under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015. Statement 1 is Incorrect: Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts is not a stated objective of DMFs. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary purpose of DMFs is to work for the welfare and benefit of areas and individuals affected by mining-related operations. This includes protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations. Statement 3 is Incorrect: However, DMFs do not have the authority to issue licenses for mineral exploration, as this is the responsibility of the State Governments. Their focus is more on the welfare of the affected persons and areas. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2013
Social Issues & Schemes
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 1 and 2 only
- D. None of the above
Explanation
Correct answer
C. 1 and 2 only
Both statements are correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India. Statement 1 is correct: NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background. Statement 2 is correct: NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2020
Social Issues & Schemes
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 and 4 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include - Women and children - Members of SC/ST - Industrial workmen - Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster - Disabled persons - Persons in custody - Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh - Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar . Statement 2 is correct. There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level) Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid. Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2020
Social Issues & Schemes
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next years
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Correct answer
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct: The MPLAD scheme lets MPs recommend works for local infrastructure and development needs in their constituency. The focus is on creating durable assets that benefit the community. Certain works are prohibited under MPLAD guidelines, which MPs must follow. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme requires MPs to allocate at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year to areas inhabited by the Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by the Scheduled Tribe population. If there are insufficient tribal populations in the MP's constituency, they can recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside their constituency, but within their State of election. If a state does not have Scheduled Tribe inhabited areas, this amount can be utilized in Scheduled Caste areas. Statement 3 is incorrect: Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable, meaning that funds left in the district can be carried forward and utilized in subsequent years. Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority is responsible for coordinating and supervising the works under the scheme at the district level. They also inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Based on the above information, the correct answer is (d).
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
Parliamentary System & Procedures
UPSC Prelims 2018
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualifications laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 only
- C. 1 and 3
- D. 3 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.
Indian Polity & Governance
Social Justice & Development
Fundamental Rights
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Welfare Schemes & Social Policies
UPSC Prelims 2016
Indian Polity
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
- A. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
- B. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
- C. Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
- D. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.
Indian Polity & Governance
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Parliamentary System & Procedures
Separation Of Powers & Constitutional Ideals