UPSC Prelims 2025
Geography
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A. Only one
- B. Only two
- C. All the three
- D. None
Explanation
Correct answer
C. All the three
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Indian Polity & Governance
Geography
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Physical & Regional Geography
UPSC Prelims 2025
Indian Polity
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
- A. I and II only
- B. II and III only
- C. I and III only
- D. I, II and III
Explanation
Correct answer
A. I and II only
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2017
Indian Polity
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
- A. Federalism
- B. Democratic decentralization
- C. Administrative delegation
- D. Direct democracy
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Democratic decentralization
Local self-government is a key aspect of democratic decentralization, ensuring governance at the grassroots level. In India, local self-government refers to governing bodies operating below the state level, forming the third tier of governance in the federal structure. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provide constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural) and Urban Local Bodies (urban), respectively. Additionally, each state enacts its own legislation to regulate local governance. Democratic decentralization is the foundation of local self-government, emphasizing: - Democracy: Local citizens actively participate in governance through elected representatives, ensuring direct engagement in decision-making. - Decentralization: Authority and responsibilities are transferred from central and state governments to local bodies, empowering communities to address region-specific issues and enhance efficient governance. Thus, local self-government in India strengthens grassroots democracy, fosters self-reliance, and ensures better service delivery to the people.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2024
Modern History
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.
History Of India
Indian Polity & Governance
Colonial Rule & Administration
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2017
Indian Polity
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
- A. There is an independent judiciary in India.
- B. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
- C. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
- D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Explanation
Correct answer
D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Indian federalism is characterized by key features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and the States, and unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha, all of which are enshrined in the Indian Constitution. However, unlike classical federations like the United States, Indian federalism is not the outcome of an agreement among the federating units. The Indian Constitution, which lays down the framework for India's federal structure, was not created through an agreement among the federating units but was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India.
Indian Polity & Governance
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
UPSC Prelims 2013
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional Amendments & Structure
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2015
Indian Polity
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is Correct: The Fourteenth Finance Commission indeed increased the devolution of tax revenue from the central government to the states. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While promoting formula-based devolution, the commission does not provide recommendations regarding sector-specific grants to ensure focus on critical areas.
Indian Polity & Governance
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2025
Economy
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. I, II and III
- B. I, II and IV
- C. I, III and IV
- D. II, III and IV
Explanation
Correct answer
C. I, III and IV
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Indian Economy
Indian Polity & Governance
Public Finance & Taxation
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2023
Economy
Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
- A. Only two
- B. Only three
- C. Only four
- D. All five
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Only three
Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart:
Indian Economy
Indian Polity & Governance
Public Finance & Taxation
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
UPSC Prelims 2025
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. I only
- B. II only
- C. Both I and II
- D. Neither I nor II
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Neither I nor II
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
Indian Polity & Governance
Federal Structure & Centre State Relations
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies