Editorials thehindu.com

​Coerced consent: On sedition

25 May 2026 Source

Exam Summary

The article discusses the continued use and evolution of sedition law in India, from Section 124A of the IPC to Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). It highlights the Supreme Court's varying stances, including a 2022 stay on new sedition cases and a recent 2026 clarification allowing trials to proceed with the accused's 'consent,' which the author argues could be coerced. The piece criticizes this clarification for potentially undermining free speech, the 'bail is the rule' principle, and creating an unequal justice system where liberty depends on the capacity to litigate, rather than resolving the constitutional validity of the law.

GS Paper II - Indian Polity and Governance: Constitution of India (Fundamental Rights, Judiciary), Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.

UPSC concepts in this story

These are durable syllabus ideas — use them for revision, not article memory.

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Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • Sedition law (Section 124A IPC) has been replaced by Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS).
  • The Supreme Court initially stayed the use of Section 124A in 2022 (S.G. Vombatkere case) pending reconsideration by the Centre.
  • In 2026, the Supreme Court clarified that trials under Section 124A can proceed if the accused consents, despite the ongoing constitutional challenge.
  • The principle of 'bail is the rule, not the jail' was reinforced in the Syed Iftikhar Andrabi case.
  • The article discusses the implications of these legal changes on fundamental rights, particularly freedom of speech, and access to justice.
  • Understanding the roles of the Judiciary (Supreme Court) and Legislature (Parliament) in law-making and interpretation is crucial.

Elimination Traps

  • Confusing the provisions of Section 124A IPC with Section 152 BNS.
  • Misinterpreting the Supreme Court's 2022 stay versus its 2026 clarification on sedition cases.
  • Overlooking the direct linkage of sedition law to Fundamental Rights, especially Article 19 (1)(a) on freedom of speech and expression.

Static Concepts

  • Sedition
  • Section 124A IPC
  • Section 152 BNS
  • First Information Report (FIR)
  • Bail
  • Constitutional Challenge
  • Free Speech
  • Hobson's choice
  • Rule of law
  • Separation of powers
  • Coercion

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • Constitutional validity of sedition law in India, both under IPC and BNS.
Question areas
  • Role of the Supreme Court in judicial review and protection of fundamental rights.
Question areas
  • Key differences and implications of Section 124A IPC and Section 152 BNS.
Question areas
  • The concept of 'bail is the rule' and its application in criminal justice.
Question areas
  • Impact of new criminal laws on civil liberties and the right to dissent.
Conceptual Recurrence

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UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

  1. A. 1st Amendment
  2. B. 42nd Amendment
  3. C. 44th Amendment
  4. D. 86thAmendment
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1st Amendment

* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.

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UPSC Prelims 2021 Indian Polity

‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

  1. A. Article 15
  2. B. Article 19
  3. C. Article 21
  4. D. Article 29
Explanation
Correct answer
C. Article 21

The right to privacy in India is not explicitly mentioned in a single article of the Constitution. However, it is considered an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21. This recognition came about through a landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2017, K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India. The court ruled that the right to privacy is an inseparable part of the right to life and personal liberty, and is protected under Article 21.

Indian Polity & Governance Fundamental Rights Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2015 Indian Polity

Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

  1. A. The President of India
  2. B. The Prime Minister of India
  3. C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
  4. D. The Supreme Court of India
Explanation
Correct answer
D. The Supreme Court of India

A custodian is a person entrusted with the custody or care of something. - Whenever Fundamental Rights are denied or restricted, it can be challenged in the Supreme Court under Article 32; - The dispute between Centre and State can be settled in the Supreme Court under Article 131; - the Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts in India under Article 141; - For the enforcement of decrees - Article 142; - President of India consulting Supreme Court under Article 143; - After all, under Article 13, all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void ( Doctrine of Judicial Review). - Supreme Court judgments are the law of the land; Based on the above facts, the Supreme Court takes care of the Constitution. So, simply the Supreme Court is the Custodian of the Constitution.

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UPSC Prelims 2019 Indian Polity

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

  1. A. Article 19
  2. B. Article 21
  3. C. Article 25
  4. D. Article 29
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Article 21

Article 21: This article states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has expanded the scope of personal liberty to include various fundamental rights, including the right to marry a person of one's choice. Shamima Begum vs. State of Assam (2018): The court ruled that a woman has the right to marry a person of her choice, reinforcing that personal decisions related to marriage fall under individual autonomy and personal liberty as guaranteed by Article 21. Hadiya's case (Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M): The Supreme Court upheld the right to marry as a fundamental right under Article 21. It ruled that an adult woman is free to make decisions regarding her marriage, rejecting attempts to interfere in personal choices. The court emphasized that state or societal disapproval cannot restrict an individual’s right to marry.

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UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

  1. A. Article 15
  2. B. Article 16
  3. C. Article 19
  4. D. Article 21
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Article 21

* The Supreme Court of India, in its landmark judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017), declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right enshrined in the Constitution of India. * The court held that this right is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. *  Article 21: States that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.' The court interpreted 'personal liberty' broadly to include various aspects of privacy. _While the other options are fundamental rights, they are not directly where the Right to Privacy is placed:_ * Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. * Article 16: Guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. * Article 19: Guarantees certain freedoms like speech and expression, assembly, etc.

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A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :

  1. A. a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
  2. B. the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
  3. C. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
  4. D. the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Explanation
Correct answer
C. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

Writ of Prohibition: * It is a judicial order issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal. * It prevents the lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to law. * Purpose: To stop ongoing proceedings in a case where the lower court lacks jurisdiction or violates legal procedures. * Nature: It is preventive, ensuring the lower court does not act unlawfully rather than correcting a wrong decision after it has occurred. * Example: If a tribunal starts hearing a case that legally falls under the jurisdiction of a civil court, the Writ of Prohibition can halt such proceedings. * Comparison with Certiorari: Prohibition is issued before judgment to stop proceedings, whereas Certiorari is issued after judgment to quash orders passed unlawfully.

Indian Polity & Governance Judiciary & Judicial Review Fundamental Rights
UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?

  1. A. The principle of natural justice
  2. B. The procedure established by law
  3. C. Fair application of law
  4. D. Equality before law
Explanation
Correct answer
A. The principle of natural justice

* Option (a) is correct: The concept of 'Due Process of Law' primarily means that the procedure through which a person is deprived of life or liberty must be fair, just, and reasonable, following the principles of natural justice. It ensures that laws are not only enacted properly but also applied fairly and reasonably. * Option (b) is not correct: The phrase 'Procedure established by law', used in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, refers to any procedure laid down by law, even if it is unfair. However, after the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) judgment, the Supreme Court read into Article 21 the American concept of ‘Due Process of Law’, ensuring fairness and reasonableness in both substance and procedure. * Option (c) is not entirely correct: While fair application of law is part of due process, the phrase ‘Due Process of Law’ has a broader meaning that encompasses substantive fairness, procedural justice, and conformity with natural justice. Hence, option (a) captures its essence more accurately. * Option (d) is not correct: Equality before law (Article 14) is a distinct constitutional principle and not equivalent to due process.

Indian Polity & Governance Fundamental Rights Judiciary & Judicial Review
UPSC Prelims 2018 Indian Polity

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

  1. A. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
  2. B. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
  3. C. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
  4. D. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Explanation
Correct answer
C. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

Right to Privacy and Article 21: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. In the landmark 2017 judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21. This ruling reinforced privacy as a fundamental right, ensuring protection against unwarranted state and private intrusions. Part III of the Constitution covers Fundamental Rights, which include: - Article 19: Right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom of movement, and other essential liberties. - Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty, which now includes privacy after the Puttaswamy judgment. Article 14: Ensures equality before the law, but does not explicitly deal with privacy. Article 17: Abolishes untouchability. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are non-enforceable guidelines, not fundamental rights. Article 24: Prohibits child labor but has no relation to privacy. Thus, the right to privacy is most closely linked to Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

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UPSC Prelims 2019 Indian Polity

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

  1. A. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. C. Indira Gandhi
  4. D. Morarji Desai
Explanation
Correct answer
A. Jawaharlal Nehru

The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 to protect certain laws, particularly those related to land reforms, from judicial review. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the Constitution (First Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha in 1951. This amendment aimed to safeguard progressive socio-economic legislation from being struck down by courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to property under Article 31 (which was later repealed by the 44th Amendment in 1978).

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UPSC Prelims 2020 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 4 only
  2. B. 2 and 4 only
  3. C. 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 and 4 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months, which invalidated the provision in the Aadhaar Act that allowed the storage of such data for up to five years. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 which allowed private corporations to verify Aadhaar data. The Court held this provision unconstitutional, as it was seen to violate privacy rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2018 Supreme Court judgment declared that making Aadhaar mandatory for services beyond welfare schemes, including financial services like insurance or for preventing money laundering, was unconstitutional. In response to this ruling, the IRDAI issued an advisory in 2019, clarifying that Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance. It also withdrew its earlier 2017 policy that had made Aadhaar compulsory for insurance in the context of anti-money laundering measures. Statement 4 is correct: In the Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which allows the Central or State Governments to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India. The Court defined welfare schemes as those funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, thus validating the use of Aadhaar for such schemes. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2 and 4 only.

Indian Polity & Governance Current Affairs Judiciary & Judicial Review Fundamental Rights Welfare Schemes & Social Policies