Editorials thehindu.com

​Lows of the land: On Meenakshi Natarajan’s Rajya Sabha nomination

12 June 2026 Source

Exam Summary

The article discusses the rejection of Congress leader Meenakshi Natarajan's Rajya Sabha nomination from Madhya Pradesh by the Returning Officer, citing non-disclosure of a pending criminal case. It highlights concerns about institutional integrity and procedural fairness, arguing that the rejection misinterprets Section 33A of the Representation of the People Act, which requires disclosure only for cases with charges framed and a potential punishment of two years or more. The Supreme Court has agreed to hear the matter, while the article criticizes the Election Commission for failing in its duty to ensure free and fair elections.

GS Paper II: Indian Polity and Governance

UPSC concepts in this story

These are durable syllabus ideas — use them for revision, not article memory.

Electoral Process and Candidate Eligibility

The electoral process, guided by RPA 1951, defines candidate eligibility and nomination scrutiny. Section 33A mandates disclosure of specific criminal cases ...

Indian Polity & Governance 6 PYQs 1 developments

Exam Themes

Prelims Takeaways

  • Understand the role and powers of the Returning Officer in Rajya Sabha elections.
  • Know the provisions of Section 33A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA) regarding disclosure of criminal cases by candidates.
  • Identify the specific conditions for disclosure under RPA cases carrying a punishment of two years or more, and only when charges have been framed.
  • Recall the constitutional duty of the Election Commission of India to ensure free and fair elections.
  • Differentiate between a private complaint filed directly before a court and a conventional police FIR.

Elimination Traps

  • Confusing 'pending criminal case' with 'charges framed' as per RPA requirements.
  • Misinterpreting the specific punishment threshold (two years or more) for disclosure.
  • Distinguishing the legal implications of a private complaint versus a police FIR.

Static Concepts

  • Institutional integrity
  • Procedural fairness
  • Free and fair elections
  • Democracy
  • Election affidavit
  • Framing of charges
  • Criminal antecedents of candidates
  • Disclosure regime
  • Private complaint
  • First Information Report (FIR)

Probable Question Areas

Question areas
  • MCQs on the Representation of the People Act, particularly Section 33A and its conditions for candidate disclosure.
Question areas
  • Questions on the powers, functions, and constitutional mandate of the Election Commission of India.
Question areas
  • Questions related to the electoral process for Rajya Sabha and the role of election officials like the Returning Officer.
Question areas
  • Conceptual questions differentiating various stages of criminal proceedings (e.g., complaint, FIR, charge sheet, framing of charges).
Conceptual Recurrence

Related Prelims PYQs

Ranked by topic match, theme match, recency, and recurring UPSC patterns.

UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

  1. A. One
  2. B. Two
  3. C. Three
  4. D. Four
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Four

* Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.   * The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court.  * The Commission’s orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies concerned, but they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. * Composition: Retired Supreme Court Judge, Chief Election Commissioner and respective state election commissioners.

Indian Polity & Governance Constitutional & Statutory Bodies Parliamentary System & Procedures
UPSC Prelims 2013 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 89 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and is not a member of the House. However, the Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members. Therefore, the Deputy Chairman is a member of the House, making the statement "both are not members" factually wrong. Statement 2 is correct: The Electoral College for the President (Article 54) includes only elected members of Parliament. However, the Electoral College for the Vice-President (Article 66) consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2025 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A. I and II only
  2. B. II and III only
  3. C. I and III only
  4. D. I, II and III
Explanation
Correct answer
C. I and III only

Statement I: Correct
The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94). ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality. ✅ Statement III: Correct
The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94). Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2015 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. This is a provision under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. This is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), but it does not have the power to vote on the demands for grants. This is also the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 1 and 2
  3. C. 2 and 3
  4. D. 3 only
Explanation
Correct answer
B. 1 and 2

* Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void. * Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill. * Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2022 Indian Polity

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A. 1 and 3 only
  2. B. 1, 2 and 3
  3. C. 3 and 4 only
  4. D. 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India. Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A. Only one
  2. B. Only two
  3. C. Only three
  4. D. All four
Explanation
Correct answer
A. Only one

* Statement 1 is incorrect: The elected members of the Upper and Lower Houses of Parliament that is the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha as well as the elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (Delhi, Puducherry and J&K) comprise the electoral college for the Presidential Election in India.  * Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of the vote of each MLA depends on the ratio of the States population and the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly. By dividing the States population by the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly, and then further dividing the quotient achieved by 1000, one may calculate the value of each MLAs vote. Based on a calculation that takes into account each States population about the number of members in its legislative Assembly, each MLAs vote value varies from State to State. According to the Constitution (Eighty-fourth Amendment) Act of 2001, the population of the States is currently calculated using data from the 1971 Census.  * Statement 3 is incorrect: The vote value of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is less than that of the vote value of each MLA of Kerala as the ratio of total population to total elective seats in Kerala is greater relative to that in Madhya Pradesh.  * Statement 4 is correct: The vote value of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh as the ratio of total population to total elective seats in Puducherry is greater relative to that in Arunachal Pradesh. In the 2022 Presidential election, the vote value of each MLA from Puducherry was 16 whereas the vote value of each MLA from Arunachal Pradesh came out to be 8.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A. Only one
  2. B. Only two
  3. C. All three
  4. D. None
Explanation
Correct answer
B. Only two

Statement 1 is correct: While a Finance Bill (Category I under Art 117) is introduced only in the Lok Sabha (similar to a Money Bill), it is passed according to the ordinary legislative procedure. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it. Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill (Article 110) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. It can only make recommendations which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. Statement 3 is incorrect: While a Joint Sitting is not provided for Money Bills, it is available for Finance Bills. However, it is not "necessary" (mandatory) to hold one. Under Article 108, the President "may" summon a Joint Sitting to resolve the deadlock, but is not obliged to do so; the bill could simply be allowed to lapse.

Indian Polity & Governance Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
UPSC Prelims 2019 Indian Polity

In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A. 1 and 2
  2. B. 1, 3 and 4
  3. C. 3, 4 and 5
  4. D. 2 and 5
Explanation
Correct answer
A. 1 and 2

In India, the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. are reviewed by the Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament and the Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees. The role of these committees is to ensure that the regulators are performing their duties effectively and in the best interest of the public. The Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, and NITI Aayog do not have the mandate to review the independent regulators. Hence, only 1 and 2 are the correct option codes.

Indian Polity & Governance Indian Economy Parliamentary System & Procedures Constitutional & Statutory Bodies