Equality of treatment for Persons with Disabilities

Statement 1 is incorrect. The “Right to the City” is not a formally agreed universal human right in international law. It is a normative and political concept. UN-Habitat uses the idea in the New Urban Agenda, but: it does not legally monitor binding national commitments. Statement 2 is correct. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants (present and future, permanent and temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern, and enjoy cities, towns, and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right. Statement 3 is correct. “Right to the City” is interpreted as an inclusive urban citizenship right. The concept says that all city dwellers, including: migrants, slum dwellers, residents of unauthorized colonies, have a claim to urban services and dignity. It views residents not as “encroachers” but as rights-bearing urban citizens who contribute to the city economy. Hence: denial of water, sanitation, waste management, etc. merely because a settlement is “unauthorized” is seen as violating the spirit of Right to the City. Indian courts have also held that basic services cannot be denied even to illegal settlements, as they are part of Article 21 – Right to Life. Note: UPSC usually takes welfare centric approach in questions.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months, which invalidated the provision in the Aadhaar Act that allowed the storage of such data for up to five years. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 which allowed private corporations to verify Aadhaar data. The Court held this provision unconstitutional, as it was seen to violate privacy rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2018 Supreme Court judgment declared that making Aadhaar mandatory for services beyond welfare schemes, including financial services like insurance or for preventing money laundering, was unconstitutional. In response to this ruling, the IRDAI issued an advisory in 2019, clarifying that Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance. It also withdrew its earlier 2017 policy that had made Aadhaar compulsory for insurance in the context of anti-money laundering measures. Statement 4 is correct: In the Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which allows the Central or State Governments to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India. The Court defined welfare schemes as those funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, thus validating the use of Aadhaar for such schemes. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2 and 4 only.

The Central Government introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 1, 2004 (except for armed forces). Subsequently, various State Governments adopted this architecture and implemented NPS with effect from different dates. Eligibility to join
- Any citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident, subject to the following conditions.
- Individuals who are aged between 18 60 years, including NRIs.
- After attaining 60 years of age, you will not be permitted to make further contributions to the NPS accounts

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and accessibility. It also mandates reservations for PwDs, such as increasing the quota to 4% in government employment and 5% in higher education. Statement 2 is Correct: The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). It focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure (barrier-free public buildings), transport systems (accessible railways, airports, and roads), and information and communication technology (accessible government websites and digital ecosystems). Statement 3 is Incorrect: The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking registered as a not-for-profit company to provide concessional financial assistance to promote entrepreneurship, self-employment, and higher education among PwDs. However, it was set up under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Therefore, the correct option is B.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Government had launched a scheme viz Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme of Government of India, 1993. As per the scheme, Temporary status would be conferred on all casual labourers who were in employment and who have rendered a continuous service of at least one year, which means that they must have been engaged for at least 240 days (206 days in case of offices observing 5 days week). Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has decreed that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits as stipulated in the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. The Court's ruling stemmed from its interpretation of Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, wherein the definition of an "employee" encompasses a broad scope, including any individual engaged directly or indirectly in connection with an establishment's work and receiving wages. A bench of the Supreme Court affirmed this viewpoint. Statement 3 is correct: The government has the authority to specify through a notification that an establishment or industry is obligated to disburse wages exclusively via its bank account.

* Statement I is correct: India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis. * Statement II is correct: India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts.
Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Mission Indradhanush launched by the Government of India pertains to immunization. Specifically, it's a special immunization program that aims to - Increase full immunization coverage - Mission Indradhanush targets children under two years old and pregnant women to ensure they receive all the recommended vaccines for protection against vaccine-preventable diseases. - Focus on low-coverage areas - Improve routine immunization By focusing on these aspects, Mission Indradhanush aims to improve overall child health and reduce the burden of vaccine-preventable diseases in India. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit. Statement 2 is correct: Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious take home ration of 600 Calories and a maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000 for six months, says the official act.

Operation Sadbhavana is a unique initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and the North East regions. It focuses on winning the hearts and minds of the local population through various developmental activities and assistance. This includes providing education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and promoting skill development initiatives. _Let's look at the other options:_ * Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure maritime security in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. *  Operation Maitri refers to the Indian Armed Forces' humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations to assist friendly countries. A notable example was the aid provided to Nepal during the 2015 earthquake. *  Operation Madad is the Indian Navy's effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both within India and to neighboring countries.