Export Duty
Export duties are indirect taxes on exports, used by the government to manage domestic supply, especially for critical goods like petroleum, often reviewed p...
The government has increased the export duty on diesel to ₹14 per litre and on aviation turbine fuel (ATF) to ₹12.5 per litre, while keeping the levy on petrol unchanged at ₹1.5 per litre, effective from June 16, 2026. This decision, part of a fortnightly review by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC), aims to ensure adequate domestic availability of petroleum products by disincentivising exports, a measure initially implemented in March 2026 in response to the West Asia crisis. Excise duty rates for domestic consumption remain unchanged.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
Export duties are indirect taxes on exports, used by the government to manage domestic supply, especially for critical goods like petroleum, often reviewed p...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement 1 is correct: Foreign currency earnings - The IT sector generates foreign exchange through exports of services. This increases the supply of foreign currency reserves, making it easier to defend the rupee's value in the foreign exchange market during times of stress. Statement 2 is incorrect: While government spending can stimulate economic growth, it can also lead to a higher budget deficit. If the deficit is financed by excessive borrowing, it can put pressure on the currency if investors lose confidence in the government's ability to repay its debts. Statement 3 is correct: Remittances from abroad - When Indians working abroad send money back home, it adds to the inflow of foreign currency. This strengthens the country's foreign exchange reserves and provides a buffer against external shocks. Therefore, the correct code is 1 and 3 only.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II :Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047. * Statement II is correct: The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers. Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI scheme.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. Typically, the RBI uses open market operations to sell government securities to drain money from the system and control inflation. Buying government securities would inject money into the system, potentially fueling inflation further. Statement 2 is correct. Selling dollars in the market - If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, the RBI might intervene in the foreign exchange market by selling dollars from its reserves. This increased supply of dollars in the market can help stabilize the exchange rate and slow down the depreciation of the rupee. Statement 3 is correct. Lower interest rates in the US/EU make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment, leading to a large inflow of dollars. This causes the rupee to strengthen (appreciate). To prevent the rupee from appreciating too rapidly and hurting exporters, the RBI buys the excess dollars from the market.
Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is Correct: The OEKO-TEX certification ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of Eri Silk and allowing Indian exporters to confidently compete in high-end international markets that prioritize sustainable, chemical-free, and ethically produced textiles. Statement 2 is Correct: The certification confirms that a textile meets strict international safety, environmental, and human health standards. This is highly valued by buyers in premium, eco-conscious global markets, particularly in Europe and North America. Combined with its Geographical Indication (GI) status and reputation as a cruelty-free "peace silk," the certification cements Eri Silk's position as a premium eco-friendly fabric, enabling its entry into these premium markets. Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: While NBFCs do not have routine, direct access to the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) like scheduled commercial banks, they can access RBI liquidity indirectly through eligible participants such as Primary Dealers and banks, and through special liquidity windows and RBI operations linked to LAF mechanisms. Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (now FPIs) are permitted to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) and Treasury Bills. The RBI has even introduced the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), which allows non-residents to invest in specified government bonds without any investment upper limit. Statement 3 is correct: To develop a robust corporate and government bond market, the RBI and SEBI have permitted Stock Exchanges to set up dedicated debt trading platforms. For example, the NSE's Wholesale Debt Market (WDM) and Retail Debt Market (RDM) provide transparent platforms for these transactions.
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
* Sterilisation refers to the actions taken by a central bank to offset the impact of its foreign exchange operations on the domestic money supply. * When a central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying or selling foreign currencies, it affects the domestic money supply. * Open Market Operations (OMO) is one of the primary tools used by central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to conduct monetary policy. * In OMO, the central bank buys or sells government securities (bonds) in the open market to influence the liquidity in the economy. When the RBI conducts OMO, it impacts the money supply in the economy. If the RBI buys government securities, it injects money into the system, increasing the money supply. To prevent this injection of money from creating inflationary pressures, the RBI engages in sterilisation. * Sterilisation involves the simultaneous sale or purchase of other securities, typically treasury bills, to offset the impact of the initial open market operation.
Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Tight monetary policy is an action taken by a central bank, such as the Federal Reserve, to curb overheated economic growth. Central banks employ tight monetary policy when an economy is experiencing rapid acceleration or when inflation, which pertains to overall prices, is escalating too swiftly. Statement 1 is correct. A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve means higher interest rates in the US. This attracts global investors to shift their capital towards US assets for better returns. As a result, there can be capital flight from emerging markets like India to the US. Statement 2 is correct. When capital flows out, the domestic currency tends to depreciate, and global interest rates rise. Firms that have borrowed in foreign currencies through External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) will now face higher repayment costs in rupee terms. Thus, their cost of servicing these loans increases, raising their overall financial burden. Statement 3 is incorrect. Devaluation of the domestic currency actually increases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Since these loans are denominated in foreign currency (like USD), a weaker rupee means firms have to pay more in rupees to repay the same amount of foreign debt. Therefore, devaluation heightens, not reduces, currency risk. NOTE: The given question was dropped by UPSC from the Official Answer Key.
India Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?
1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve.
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Federal Reserve's monetary policy decisions, particularly regarding interest rates, can impact global capital flows. If the Fed raises interest rates, it can make US investments more attractive, potentially leading to some outflow of capital from India. This could affect demand for Indian government bonds and influence their yield. Statement 2 is correct: The RBI's monetary policy plays a crucial role in influencing Indian government bond yields. The RBI's actions like setting repo rates, open market operations, and cash reserve ratio (CRR) can affect the overall liquidity in the banking system. Higher liquidity can lead to lower yields, and vice versa. Statement 3 is correct: Inflation expectations and short-term interest rates are important factors for investors when considering the return on government bonds. Higher inflation expectations can lead investors to demand higher yields to compensate for the potential erosion of purchasing power. Similarly, short-term interest rates can act as a benchmark for bond yields. Therefore, all three factors significantly influence the yields of Indian government bonds.
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
To stop the slide of the Rupee (depreciation), the RBI/Government needs to increase the inflow of foreign currency (USD) or decrease the outflow. Option (a), (b), and (c) are likely measures: They either increase the supply of dollars in the Indian market or reduce the demand for dollars, which helps stabilize the Rupee. Option (d) is NOT a likely measure: An expansionary monetary policy usually involves lowering interest rates. When interest rates fall, the "carry trade" becomes less attractive to foreign investors, leading to capital flight. This increases the supply of Rupee in the market and decreases its value further. To stop a slide, the RBI typically follows a contractionary (dear money) policy to attract capital and curb inflation.
A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
Fiscal Deficit represents the government's total borrowing requirement, while the Primary Deficit shows how much the government is borrowing excluding interest payments on past debt. ✅ Formula:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments Given: * Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
* Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crores
* Non-debt capital receipts are already factored into the fiscal deficit, so no need to adjust further. Calculation:
Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 − ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
Why is maritime security vital to protect India’s sea trade? Discuss maritime and coastal security challenges and the way forward.
Mineral resources are fundamental to the country’s economy and these are exploited by mining. Why is mining considered an environmental hazard? Explain the remedial measures required to reduce the environmental hazard due to mining.
How does nanotechnology offer significant advancements in the field of agriculture? How can this technology help to uplift the socio-economic status of farmers?
Examine the scope of the food processing industries in India. Elaborate the measures taken by the government in the food processing industries for generating employment opportunities.
Discuss the rationale of the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. What are its achievements? In what way can the functioning and outcomes of the scheme be improved?
Mahatma Jotirao Phule’s writings and efforts of social reforms touched issues of almost all subaltern classes. Discuss.