Lopsided solution: On syrup-based medicines, doctor’s prescription

Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts, etc., to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. It is not funded by WHO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s premier urban think tank, shaping the urban narrative since its establishment in 1976, it not an apex body. It is an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act.

District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) were established in India under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015. Statement 1 is Incorrect: Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts is not a stated objective of DMFs. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary purpose of DMFs is to work for the welfare and benefit of areas and individuals affected by mining-related operations. This includes protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations. Statement 3 is Incorrect: However, DMFs do not have the authority to issue licenses for mineral exploration, as this is the responsibility of the State Governments. Their focus is more on the welfare of the affected persons and areas. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Accountability is the obligation of public officials to take responsibility for their actions, ensure transparency, and answer to oversight bodies (such as vigilance authorities). It involves actively protecting the public interest, reporting misconduct, and ensuring that private contractors utilizing public funds adhere to strict quality and ethical standards. By reporting the compromised vaccine distribution to the vigilance authority and halting the contract despite immense pressure, Mr. X demonstrated a high degree of accountability towards citizen welfare. Esprit de corps is a classical management principle that emphasizes building team spirit, unity, harmony, and mutual trust among personnel within an organization. It is not the primary principle demonstrated in this scenario. Equity refers to the principle of fairness, justice, and impartiality in administration, ensuring that public services and resources are distributed without bias. While his actions were just, the specific act of reporting to vigilance and taking responsibility highlights accountability rather than equity. Delegation is the administrative process of transferring authority and responsibility for specific tasks from a superior to a subordinate or a third-party service provider. Mr. X's actions were about holding the delegated party accountable, not the act of delegation itself. Therefore, the correct option is C.

Both statements are correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India. Statement 1 is correct: NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background. Statement 2 is correct: NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four. Statement 2 is Correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified regions (including Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh) are exempt from paying income tax on income generated from sources within those areas, as well as on dividends or interest on securities. Statement 3 is Correct: Article 243D of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Furthermore, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, there are exactly two correct statements, which include Statement 2. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run. Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include - Women and children - Members of SC/ST - Industrial workmen - Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster - Disabled persons - Persons in custody - Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh - Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar . Statement 2 is correct. There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level) Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid. Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

* PESA doesn't deal with the creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas. * The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of certain tribal areas as autonomous entities. The provisions of the sixth schedule are provided under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.

The article explicitly states: 'The Union Health Ministry has removed the term “syrup” from Schedule K of the Drugs Rules 1945, a change it had signalled when it issued the draft notification in December 2025, thus requiring cough syrups to be sold only with a prescription, through licensed pharmacies.'

The article states: 'The fundamental issue is that the government continues to tolerate the pharmaceutical lobby’s argument that high-end testing requirements — for stronger quality control and ultimately better drugs — will bankrupt smaller manufacturers.' While other options are related issues, the article identifies the pharmaceutical lobby's resistance as the 'fundamental issue' the government tolerates.

The article clearly states: 'These products were singled out after ethylene glycol (EG) and diethylene glycol (DEG) contamination in India-made cough syrups killed over 300 children across several countries since 2022.'