Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
The 2024 Act targets organized exam malpractices with severe penalties but overlooks candidate compensation and institutional accountability, creating a gap ...
The article critically analyzes the lack of accountability within the National Testing Agency (NTA) following the cancellation and re-examination of NEET-UG. It highlights that the NTA, being a registered society and not a statutory body, has limited formal obligations to candidates. The single-sitting, single-paper design of NEET-UG amplifies the impact of any breach, leading to nationwide disruptions. While the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, introduces penalties for leaks, it lacks provisions for candidate compensation or NTA liability. The article argues that this design, which transfers all costs of institutional failure onto candidates, particularly those from weaker sections, violates constitutional principles like Article 14 and the Directive Principles (Articles 41, 46). It recommends giving NTA a statutory basis, establishing a mandatory compensation mechanism, and introducing multiple examination windows to distribute risk.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
The 2024 Act targets organized exam malpractices with severe penalties but overlooks candidate compensation and institutional accountability, creating a gap ...
The article highlights the NTA's lack of statutory backing and codified liability, which creates an accountability vacuum during exam failures, disproportion...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one. Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India. Statement 1 is correct: NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background. Statement 2 is correct: NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include - Women and children - Members of SC/ST - Industrial workmen - Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster - Disabled persons - Persons in custody - Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh - Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar . Statement 2 is correct. There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level) Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid. Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions. ✅ I. Inter-State Council – Correct
* Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination. ❌ II. National Security Council – Incorrect
* Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution. ❌ III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect
* Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
* Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. * The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court. * The Commission’s orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies concerned, but they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. * Composition: Retired Supreme Court Judge, Chief Election Commissioner and respective state election commissioners.
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President of India, not the Governor of a State, has the power to specify a community as a Scheduled Tribe (ST) for a particular state or Union Territory. This is done through a notification in the Official Gazette, after consultation with the concerned State government. Statement 2 is correct: The specification of Scheduled Tribes is not uniform across the country. A community recognized as an ST in one State may not be recognized as such in another State. This is because the criteria for scheduling are based on social, educational, and economic backwardness, which can vary across regions.
Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes all Indian public servants, even those posted abroad. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect
Chairperson need not be only the CJI; former judges or eminent persons with 25+ years’ expertise can also be appointed. ✅ Statement III: Correct
Minimum age to be Chairperson or Member is 45 years. ❌ Statement IV: Incorrect
Lokpal can inquire against a sitting PM, but with safeguards and restrictions in sensitive areas. Therefore, only Statement III is correct.
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
Does tribal development in India centre around two axes, those of displacement and of rehabilitation? Give your opinion.
Achieving sustainable growth with emphasis on environmental protection could come into conflict with poor people’s needs in a country like India – Comment.
How do you account for the growing fast food industries given that there are increased health concerns in modern society? Illustrate your answer with the Indian experience.
Examine the evolving pattern of Centre-State financial relations in the context of planned development in India. How far have the recent reforms impacted the fiscal federalism in India?
Indian Constitution has conferred the amending power on the ordinary legislative institutions with a few procedural hurdles. In view of this statement, examine the procedural and substantive limitations on the amending power of the Parliament to change the Constitution.
Mahatma Jotirao Phule’s writings and efforts of social reforms touched issues of almost all subaltern classes. Discuss.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states NTA was created as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, not through an Act of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, introduces penalties for leaks but does not establish NTA's formal obligations or liability standards towards candidates. Statement 3 is correct, as the article highlights that NTA operates without a codified liability standard.
The article explicitly states that the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, prescribes penalties for organized leak networks but 'establishes no compensation mechanism for candidates when an exam is cancelled; creates no automatic re-examination right; and introduces no liability standard for the examining body.' Options A and B are therefore incorrect. Option D is also incorrect; while the article mentions CBT, it does not state that the Act mandates it, and even notes that CBT does not resolve the core structural problem.
The article explicitly states that such a design violates 'Article 14 guarantees everyone equal protection before the law and prohibits state action that is arbitrary in design and disproportionate in effect, while Articles 41 and 46 of the Directive Principles place a positive obligation on the state to secure equal opportunity in education and protect weaker sections from structural disadvantage.' Article 21 is not mentioned in this context in the article.
Introduce the context of exam disruptions, detail NTA's non-statutory status and the single-sitting, single-paper design, explain how these create an accountability gap and amplify failures, and finally, link these issues to violations of constitutional principles like Article 14 and the Directive Principles (Articles 41, 46).
Begin by explaining how the current system disproportionately affects weaker sections, then detail each of the three proposed reforms (statutory NTA, compensation mechanism, multiple exam windows), and elaborate on how each reform would contribute to social justice and equitable opportunity in education.