Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA), 1996
PESA, 1996, extends the 73rd Amendment to Scheduled Areas, empowering Gram Sabhas with significant control over land, resources, and development to protect t...
A new report highlights the erosion of India's grassroots democracy, particularly concerning Gram Sabhas. It notes 'participation fatigue' among citizens due to a lack of outcomes and systemic issues like precarious rural labor. Despite the 73rd Amendment empowering Gram Sabhas, they are often reduced to clearinghouses for central/state schemes, with solutions like the NIRNAY app failing to address fundamental issues. Panchayats face fiscal constraints, dependent on central grants tied to national priorities (e.g., Jal Jeevan Mission, Swachh Bharat), limiting local autonomy. The PESA Act, which grants Gram Sabhas prior informed consent for land acquisition and mining in Scheduled Areas, is frequently bypassed, as seen in protests like Hasdeo Arand.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
PESA, 1996, extends the 73rd Amendment to Scheduled Areas, empowering Gram Sabhas with significant control over land, resources, and development to protect t...
The article highlights the erosion of grassroots democracy through the reduced effectiveness of Gram Sabhas. Key issues include low citizen participation due...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25 years, as per the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is correct: If a Panchayat is reconstituted after premature dissolution, it does not get a fresh five-year term. Instead, it functions only for the remainder of the original term of the dissolved Panchayat, as specified under Article 243E of the Constitution. Hence, the correct answer is option B. 2 only.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four. Statement 2 is Correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified regions (including Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh) are exempt from paying income tax on income generated from sources within those areas, as well as on dividends or interest on securities. Statement 3 is Correct: Article 243D of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Furthermore, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, there are exactly two correct statements, which include Statement 2. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that there are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
* The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): This body is a constitutional body. It was given constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 338B into the Indian Constitution. * The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. * The National Law Commission: This body is not a constitutional body. It is an executive body established by an executive order of the Government of India. * The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 (replaced by the Consumer Protection Act 2019).
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
Local self-government is a key aspect of democratic decentralization, ensuring governance at the grassroots level. In India, local self-government refers to governing bodies operating below the state level, forming the third tier of governance in the federal structure. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provide constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural) and Urban Local Bodies (urban), respectively. Additionally, each state enacts its own legislation to regulate local governance. Democratic decentralization is the foundation of local self-government, emphasizing: - Democracy: Local citizens actively participate in governance through elected representatives, ensuring direct engagement in decision-making. - Decentralization: Authority and responsibilities are transferred from central and state governments to local bodies, empowering communities to address region-specific issues and enhance efficient governance. Thus, local self-government in India strengthens grassroots democracy, fosters self-reliance, and ensures better service delivery to the people.
Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart:
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Statement 1 is Correct: The Fourteenth Finance Commission indeed increased the devolution of tax revenue from the central government to the states. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While promoting formula-based devolution, the commission does not provide recommendations regarding sector-specific grants to ensure focus on critical areas.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes' advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes. Option B is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body. Option C is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not convert the area into a Union Territory. Option D is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not get declared as a Special Category State.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
Does tribal development in India centre around two axes, those of displacement and of rehabilitation? Give your opinion.
Achieving sustainable growth with emphasis on environmental protection could come into conflict with poor people’s needs in a country like India – Comment.
How do you account for the growing fast food industries given that there are increased health concerns in modern society? Illustrate your answer with the Indian experience.
Discuss the distribution and density of population in the Ganga River Basin with special reference to land, soil and water resources.
"In contemporary development models, decision-making and problem-solving responsibilities are not located close to the source of information and execution defeating the objectives of development." Critically evaluate.
Inequality in the ownership pattern of resources is one of the major causes of poverty. Discuss in the context of 'paradox of poverty'.
The article states, 'The 73rd Amendment empowers gram sabhas, but governments have reduced them to clearinghouses for central and State schemes.' This directly supports option C. Options A and D are incorrect as the 73rd Amendment empowers them, and PESA grants powers, not curtails them. Option B is incorrect as the article mentions only 4% of time is spent discussing revenue generation.
Statement 1 is correct: The article explicitly states, 'Under the PESA Act 1996 and related forest rights laws, gram sabhas have the right to provide prior informed consent for land acquisition and mining.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The article highlights that 'the state routinely bypasses them or uses the excuse of low participation to manufacture consent,' indicating ineffective implementation. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions, 'The Hasdeo Arand protests were rooted in this issue,' referring to the bypassing of PESA provisions.
The article states, 'There is thus no incentive for citizens to attend a meeting if the funds are being earmarked by Delhi bureaucrats.' This directly links fiscal constraints (dependence on central grants tied to national priorities) to reduced citizen participation, making option C correct. Options A and B are contrary to the article's points about Panchayats being constrained from raising taxes and having limited local priorities. Option D is not supported; the article mentions issues with MGNREGA demands due to server errors and lack of time for secretaries, not enhanced capacity.
Introduce the ideal of Gram Sabhas under the 73rd Amendment. Discuss factors like participation fatigue, fiscal constraints, bypassing of PESA, and administrative issues. Conclude with actionable recommendations for strengthening their autonomy and effectiveness.
Explain the fiscal constraints faced by Panchayats and how central grants tied to national priorities limit local decision-making. Detail how PESA is bypassed, citing examples like Hasdeo Arand, and its consequences for tribal self-rule. Conclude with reforms for greater fiscal devolution and stricter implementation of PESA.