Fiscal Federalism in India
Fiscal federalism in India governs the financial relationship between the Centre and States, involving tax devolution, grants, and borrowing, with ongoing de...
The article analyzes the 16th Finance Commission's recommendations regarding fiscal transfers between the Centre and States, focusing on the vertical devolution share (retained at 41%) and the criteria for horizontal transfers. It highlights concerns raised by States regarding cesses and surcharges, fiscal pressures, and reduced fiscal autonomy due to Centrally Sponsored Schemes. The article details the 16th FC's adjustments to devolution criteria, including the introduction of States' contribution to national GDP with a square-root transformation, and the abolition of revenue-deficit grants. It discusses the marginal shifts in devolution shares among States and argues that the changes are too small to significantly alter the balance between equity and efficiency, with poorer states continuing to receive larger shares. The author suggests future FCs should emphasize fiscal capacity and outcome indicators and adopt more data-driven approaches.
Durable syllabus ideas for revision — not article memory.
Fiscal federalism in India governs the financial relationship between the Centre and States, involving tax devolution, grants, and borrowing, with ongoing de...
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States, and among States, playing a pi...
Previous year Prelims questions on overlapping themes and topics.
Consider the following statements
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability. Statement 2 is not correct. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)).
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states. ✅ Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%. ✅ Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms. ✅ Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.
Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart:
With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are not solely regulated by State Governments. They are jointly regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the respective State Governments. In 2020, the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 gave RBI more control over UCBs, bringing them largely under its regulatory framework for financial stability. Statement 2 is correct. As per the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, Urban Cooperative Banks can raise funds by issuing equity shares, preference shares, and unsecured debentures with RBI approval. This allows UCBs to strengthen their capital base and improve financial health. Statement 3 is correct. Initially, cooperative banks were regulated under state laws. In 1966, an amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, brought Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) under RBI's purview for banking-related functions. However, their management and administrative aspects remained under state cooperative laws.
The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
The answer is (D) tax imposed and collected by the State Government is correct. In India, sales tax has been replaced by the Goods and Services Tax (GST). However, before the implementation of GST, sales tax was levied by individual states in India. While there might have been some central guidelines, the power to impose and collect sales tax primarily rested with the state governments.
Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
A. Diversion to Real Estate: While this can happen, it still involves some economic activity and might generate taxes (though potentially not on the full value of the transaction if black money is used). B. Investment in Unproductive Activities: This can hurt the economy, but the government loses tax revenue regardless of the type of investment if it's funded by black money. C. Donations to Political Parties: This is a concern, but the lost tax revenue likely outweighs the impact of such donations. D. Loss of Revenue: Black money, by definition, avoids taxes. This directly reduces the government's income, limiting its ability to fund public services, infrastructure, and social welfare programs. Tax evasion through black money creation significantly hinders the government's ability to function effectively and meet the needs of its citizens. This is why it's a major concern.
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Statement 1 is Correct: The Fourteenth Finance Commission indeed increased the devolution of tax revenue from the central government to the states. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While promoting formula-based devolution, the commission does not provide recommendations regarding sector-specific grants to ensure focus on critical areas.
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement”. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation. The Act also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely 1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement 2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement 3. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement
Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and services both Central (Government of India) and State Government securities. RBI acts as a debt manager for both levels of government under agreements with the states. Statement 2 is correct:
Treasury Bills (T-bills) are issued only by the Government of India, not by the State Governments. States instead issue State Development Loans (SDLs) for their borrowing needs. Statement 3 is correct:
Treasury Bills are zero-coupon instruments — they are issued at a discount to the par (face) value and redeemed at par on maturity. The difference represents the interest earned.
Previous year Mains questions mapped to overlapping GS syllabus topics.
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has to address the challenges faced by children in the digital era. Examine the existing policies and suggest measures the Commission can initiate to tackle the issue.
"In contemporary development models, decision-making and problem-solving responsibilities are not located close to the source of information and execution defeating the objectives of development." Critically evaluate.
What are environmental pressure groups? Discuss their role in raising awareness, influencing policies and advocating for environmental protection in India.
Examine the evolving pattern of Centre-State financial relations in the context of planned development in India. How far have the recent reforms impacted the fiscal federalism in India?
Discuss the evolution of collegium system in India. Critically examine the advantages and disadvantages of the system of appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India and that of the USA.
Indian Constitution has conferred the amending power on the ordinary legislative institutions with a few procedural hurdles. In view of this statement, examine the procedural and substantive limitations on the amending power of the Parliament to change the Constitution.